NURSING 3210 Exit HESI Completed and recommended for A grade Desiree
NURSING 3210 Exit HESI NURSING 3210 Exit HESI Leadership and Management Legal Aspects of Nursing o Often an NCLEX-RN® question asks who should explain a surgical procedure to the client. The answer is the health care provider. Remember that it is the nurse’s responsibility to be sure that the operative permit is signed and is on the chart. It is not the nurse’s responsibility to explain the procedure to the client. o Often questions are asked regarding the Good Samaritan Act, which is the means of protecting a nurse when she or he is performing emergency care. Good Samaritan Act: Protects health practitioners against malpractice claims for care provided in emergency situations (e.g., the nurse gives aid at the scene to an automobile accident victim). o If the nurse carries out a health care provider’s prescription for which he or she is not prepared and does not inform the health care provider of his or her lack of preparation, the nurse is solely liable for any damages. If the nurse informs the health care provider of his or her lack of preparation in carrying out a prescription and carries out the prescription anyway, the nurse and the health care provider are liable for any damages. o Assignments are often tested on the NCLEX-RN. The Nurse Practice Acts of each state governs policies related to making assignments. Usually, when determining who should be assigned to do a sterile dressing change, for example, a licensed nurse should be chosen—that is, an RN or licensed practical nurse (LPN) that has been checked off on this procedure. o Restraints of any kind may constitute false imprisonment. Freedom from unlawful restraint is a basic human right and is protected by law. Apply restraints properly; check restraints frequently to see that they are not causing injury and record such monitoring; remove restraints as soon as possible; use restraints only as a last resort o A patient must give written consent before health care providers can use or disclose personal health information; health care providers must give patients notice about providers’ responsibilities regarding patient confidentiality; patients must have access to their medical records; providers who restrict access must explain why and must offer patients a description of the complaint process; patients have the right to request that changes be made in their medical records to correct inaccuracies; health care providers must follow specific tracking procedures for any disclosures made that ensure accountability for maintenance of patient confidentiality; patients have the right to request that health care providers restrict the use and disclosure of their personal health information, though the provider may decline to do so. Leadership and Management o Assertive communication starts with “I need” rather than with “You must.” o Motivation comes from within an individual. A nurse leader can provide an environment that will promote motivation through positive feedback, respect, and seeking input. Look for responses that demonstrate these behaviors. o Effective leadership involves assertive management skills (i.e. democratic/participative). Look for responses that demonstrate that the nurse is using assertive communication skills. o Delegating to the right person requires that the nurse be aware of the qualifications of the delegator: appropriate education, training, skills, experience, and demonstrated and documented competence. Five Rights of Delegation (as defined by the National Council of State Boards of Nursing) Right task: Is this a task that can be delegated by a nurse? Right circumstance: Considering the setting and available resources, should delegation take place? Right person: Is the task being delegated by the right person to the right person? Right direction/communication: Is the nurse providing a clear, concise description of the task, including limits and expectations? Right supervision: Once the task has been delegated, is appropriate supervision maintained. UAPs generally do not perform invasive or sterile procedures. The RN is accountable for adhering to the three basic aspects of supervision when delegating to other health care personnel, such as LPNs, graduate nurses, inexperienced nurses, student nurses, and UAPs. Remember the nursing process: Assessments, analysis, diagnosis, planning, and evaluation (any activity requiring nursing judgment) may not be delegated to UAP. Delegated activities fall within the implementation phase of the nursing process. Priorities often center on which client should be assessed first by the nurse. Ask yourself: Which client is the most critically ill? Which client is most likely to experience a significant change in condition? Which client requires assessment by an RN? Delegation is as follows: Inserting a Foley catheter is a sterile invasive procedure and should not be delegated to a UAP Measuring and recording intake and output falls within the implementation phase of the nursing process and does not require nursing judgment. However, evaluation of the intake and output (I&O) must be done by the nurse. Client teaching requires the abilities of a nurse and should not be delegated. The UAP may be instructed to report anything unusual that is observed and any symptoms reported by the client, but this does not replace assessment by the nurse. Assessment must be performed by the nurse and should not be delegated. The UAP may be instructed to report anything unusual that is observed, or any symptoms reported by the client, but this does not replace assessment by the nurse. o The nurse manager must analyze all the desired outcomes involved when assigning rooms for clients or assigning client care responsibilities. A client with an infection should not be assigned to share a room with a surgical or immunocompromised client. A nurse’s client care management should be based on the nurse’s abilities, the individual client’s needs, and the needs of the entire group of assigned clients. Safety and infection control are high priorities. o Change causes anxiety. An effective nurse change agent uses problem-solving skills to recognize factors such as anxiety that contribute to resistance to change and uses decision-making and interpersonal skills to overcome that resistance. Interventions that demonstrate these skills include seeking input, showing respect, valuing opinions, and building trust. Disaster Nursing o It is important to remember that in disaster and bioterrorism management, the nurse must consider both the individual and the community. Advanced Clinical Concepts Respiratory Failure o ARDS is an unexpected, catastrophic pulmonary complication occurring in a person with no previous pulmonary problems. Clients are critically ill and are managed in an intensive care setting. The mortality rate is high (50%). o Interventions to prevent complications of clients on mechanical ventilation with ARDS: Elevate head of bed (HOB) to at least 30 degrees. Assist with daily awakening (“sedation vacation”). Implement a comprehensive oral hygiene program. Implement a comprehensive mobilization program. o Suction only when secretions are present. o Before drawing a sample for ABGs from the radial artery, perform the Allen test to assess collateral circulation. Make the client’s hand blanch by obliterating both the radial and the ulnar pulses. Thenrelease the pressure over the ulnar artery only. If flow through the ulnar artery is good, flushing will be seen immediately. The Allen test is then positive, and the radial artery can be used for puncture. If the Allen test is negative, repeat on the other arm. If this test is also negative, seek another site for arterial puncture. The Allen test ensures collateral circulation to the hand if thrombosis of the radial artery should follow the puncture. o Cardinal signs of Acute Respiratory Failure in children are Restlessness, Tachypnea, Tachycardia, and Diaphoresis. o PCO2 45 or PO2 60 on 50% O2 signifies respiratory failure. o A child in severe distress should be on 100% O2. Shock and DIC o Early signs of shock are agitation and restlessness resulting from cerebral hypoxia. o Severe shock leads to widespread cellular injury and impairs the integrity of the capillary membranes. Fluid and osmotic proteins seep into the extravascular spaces, further reducing cardiac output. o A vicious circle of decreased perfusion to all cellular level activities ensues. All organs are damaged, and if perfusion problems persist, the damage can be permanent. o All types of shock can lead to systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and result in multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). o If cardiogenic shock exists in the presence of pulmonary edema (i.e., from pump failure), position client to reduce venous return (High Fowler position with legs down) to decrease further venous return to the left ventricle. o All vasopressor and vasodilator drugs are potent and dangerous and require that the client be titrated prudently. o You are caring for a woman who was in a severe automobile accident several days earlier. She has several fractures and internal injuries. The exploratory laparotomy was successful in controlling the bleeding. However, today you find that this client is bleeding from her incision, is short of breath, and has a weak, thready pulse, cold and clammy skin, and hematuria. What do you think is wrong with the client, and what would you expect to do about it? These are typical signs and symptoms of DIC crisis. Expect to administer IV heparin to block the formation of thrombin (Coumadin does not do this). However, the client described is already past the coagulation phase and into the hemorrhagic phase. Her care would include administration of clotting factors, along with palliative treatment of the symptoms as they arise. (Her prognosis is poor.) Resuscitation o NCLEX-RN® questions on cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) often deal with prioritization of actions. Question: What actions are required for each of the following situations? A 24-year-old motorcycle accident victim with a ruptured artery of the leg who is pulseless and apneic A 36-year-old first-time pregnant woman who arrests during labor A 17-year-old with no pulse or respirations who is trapped in an overturned car that is starting to burn A 40-year-old businessman who arrests 2 days after a cervical laminectomy o When to seek emergency medical services (EMS): The American Heart Association recommends that those with known angina pectoris activate an emergency medical system if chest pain does NOT go away immediately with rest or is NOT relieved in 5 minutes after taking nitroglycerin or if additional symptoms such as nausea and sweating are also present with the chest pain. A person with previously unrecognized coronary disease experiencing chest pain persisting for 2 minutes or longer should seek emergency medical treatment. o Initiate CPR with BLS guidelines immediately; then move on to advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) guidelines. o When significant arterial acidosis is noted, try to reduce PCO2 by increasing ventilation, which willcorrect arterial, venous, and tissue acidosis. Bicarbonate may exacerbate acidosis by producing CO2. ACLS guidelines recommend that bicarbonate not be used unless hyperkalemia, tricyclic antidepressant overdose, or preexisting metabolic acidosis is documented. o In the pulseless arrest algorithm, the search for and treatment of possible contributing factors should include checking for hypovolemia, hypoxia, hydrogen ion acidosis, hypokalemia and hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, hypothermia, toxins, tamponade (cardiac), tension pneumothorax, thrombosis (cardiac, pulmonary), and trauma. Fluid and Electrolyte Balance o Changes in osmolarity cause shifts in fluid. The osmolarity of the extracellular fluid (ECF) is almost entirely due to sodium. The osmolarity of intracellular fluid (ICF) is related to many particles, with potassium being the primary electrolyte. The pressures in the ECF and the ICF are almost identical. If either ECF or ICF changes in concentration, fluid shifts from the area of lesser concentration to the area of greater concentration. o Dextrose 10% is a hyperosmolar solution and should be administered IV. o Normal saline is an isotonic solution and is used for irrigations, such as bladder irrigations or IV flush lines with intermittent IV medication. o Use only isotonic (neutral) solutions in irrigations, infusions, etc., unless the specific aim is to shift fluid to intracellular or extracellular spaces. o Potassium imbalances are potentially life-threatening; they must be corrected immediately. A low magnesium level often accompanies a low K+, especially with the use of diuretics. o Fluid Volume Deficit: Dehydration Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN): The BUN measures the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood. Urea is formed in the liver as the end product of protein metabolism. The BUN is directly related to the metabolic function of the liver and the excretory function of the kidneys. Creatinine, as with BUN, is excreted entirely by the kidneys and is therefore directly proportional to renal excretory function. However, unlike BUN, the creatinine level is affected very little by dehydration, malnutrition, or hepatic function. The daily production of creatinine depends on muscle mass, which fluctuates very little. Therefore, it is a better test of renal function than is the BUN. Creatinine is generally used in conjunction with the BUN test, and they are normally in a 1:20 ratio. Serum osmolality measures the concentration of particles in a solution. It refers to the fact that the same amount of solute is present, but the amount of solvent (fluid) is decreased. Therefore, the blood can be considered “more concentrated.” Urine osmolality and specific gravity increase. o Check the IV tubing container to determine the drip factor because drip factors vary. The most common drip factors are 10, 12, 15, and 60 drops per milliliter. A microdrip = 60 drops per milliliter. o Flushing a saline lock efficiently requires approximately 1.5 times the amount of fluid the tubing will hold. Remember to use sterile technique to prevent complications, such as infiltration, emboli, and infection. o The acronym ROME can help you remember: respiratory, opposite, metabolic, equal. Electrocardiogram (ECG/EKG) o Review the order of blood flow through the heart: Unoxygenated blood flows from the superior and inferior vena cava into the right atrium, then to the right ventricle. It flows out of the heart through the pulmonary artery, to the lungs for oxygenation. The pulmonary vein delivers oxygenated blood back to the left atrium, then to the left ventricle (largest, strongest chamber), and out the aorta. o Review the three structures that control the one-way flow of blood through the heart: Atrioventricular valves Tricuspid (right side) Mitral (left side) Semilunar valves Pulmonic (in pulmonary artery) Aortic (in aorta) Chordae tendineae Papillary muscles o The T wave represents repolarization of the ventricle, so this is a critical time in the heartbeat. This action represents a resting and regrouping stage so that the next heartbeat can occur. If defibrillation occurs during this phase, the heart can be thrust into a life-threatening dysrhythmia. (NO DEFIBRILLATION DURING T-WAVE) o Methods of Estimating Heart Rate Using an Electrocardiogram Tracing Measure the interval between consecutive QRS complexes, determine the number of small squares, and divide 1500 by that number. This method is used only when the heart rhythm is regular. Measure the interval between consecutive QRS complexes, determine the number of large squares, and divide 300 by that number. This method is used only when the heart rhythm is regular. Determine the number of RR intervals within 6 seconds and multiply by 10. The ECG paper is conveniently marked at the top with slashes that represent 3-second intervals. This method can be used when the rhythm is irregular. If the rhythm is extremely irregular, an interval of 30 to 60 seconds should be used. Count the number of big blocks between the same point in any two successive QRS complexes (usually R wave to R wave) and divide into 300 because there are 300 big blocks in 1 minute. It is easiest to use a QRS that falls on a dark line. If little blocks are left over when counting big blocks, count each little block as 0.2, add this to the number of big blocks, and then divide by 300. The memory method relies on memorization of the following sequence: 300, 150, 100, 75, 60, 50, 43, 37, 33, and 30. Find a QRS complex that falls on the dark line representing 0.2 second or a big block, and count backward to the next QRS complex. Each dark line is a memorized number. This is the method most widely used in hospitals for calculating heart rates for regular rhythms. o Observe the client for tolerance of the current rhythm. This information is the most important data the nurse can collect on a client with an arrhythmia. o NCLEX-RN questions are likely to relate to early recognition of abnormalities and associated nursing actions. Remember to monitor the client as well as the machine! If the ECG monitor shows a severe dysrhythmia but the client is sitting up quietly watching television without any sign of distress, assess to determine if the leads are attached properly. Perioperative Care o Marking the operative site is required for procedures involving right/left distinctions, multiple structures (fingers, toes), and levels (spinal procedures). Site marking should be done with the involvement of the client. o Wound dehiscence is separation of the wound edges; it is more likely to occur with vertical incisions. It usually occurs after the early postoperative period, when the client’s own granulation tissue is “taking over” the wound, after absorption of the sutures has begun. Evisceration of the wound is protrusion of intestinal contents (in an abdominal wound) and is more likely in clients who are older, diabetic, obese, or malnourished and have prolonged paralytic ileus. o NCLEX-RN items may focus on the nurse’s role in terms of the entire perioperative process. Example: A 43-year-old mother of two teenage daughters enters the hospital to have her gallbladder removed in a same-day surgery using an endoscope instead of an incision. What nursing needs will dominate each phase of her short hospital stay? Preparation phase: education about postoperative care, including NPO, assistance with meeting family needs Operative phase: assessment, management of the operative suite Postanesthesia phase: pain management, postanesthesia precautions Postoperative phase: prevention of complications, assessment for pain management, and teaching about dietary restrictions and activity levels o NCLEX-RN items may focus on delivery of safe effective care. Time Out, Surgical Care Improvement Project (SCIP) protocol implementation, and HandOff communication are all best practices implemented to prevent serious medical error during the perioperative period. Time Out occurs before making the incision and the entire surgical team pauses as the surgical site listed on the consent is read aloud. The entire team confirms that this information is correct. SCIP protocols are best practices for safety and quality that are implemented during the preoperative period and followed up on during the postoperative period. The focus of the SCIP protocol is on prevention of infection, prevention of serious cardiac events, and prevention of venous thromboembolism. The Hand-Off communication is the transfer of relevant patient information during the perioperative period, which is standardized and must include an opportunity to ask and to respond to questions. HIV Infection o HIV clients with tuberculosis require respiratory isolation. Tuberculosis is the only real risk to nonpregnant caregivers that is not related to a break in standard precautions (e.g., needle sticks). o Standard Precautions Wash hands, even if gloves have been worn to give care. Wear exam gloves for touching blood or body fluids or any non-intact body surface. Wear gowns during any procedure that might generate splashes (e.g., changing clients with diarrhea). Use masks and eye protection during activity that might disperse droplets (e.g., suctioning). Do not recap needles; dispose of in puncture-resistant containers. Use mouthpiece for resuscitation efforts. o Caregivers who are pregnant may choose not to care for a client with cytomegalovirus (CMV). o Pediatric HIV is often evidenced by lymphoid interstitial pneumonitis, pulmonary lymphoid hyperplasia, and opportunistic infections. o The focus of NCLEX-RN questions is likely to be assessment of early signs of the disease and management of complications associated with HIV. Pain o For narcotic-induced respiratory depression, naloxone (Narcan) may be administered as prescribed by the health care provider. o Use noninvasive methods for pain management when possible: Relaxation exercises Distraction Imagery Biofeedback Interpersonal skills Physical care: altering positions, touch, hot and cold applications o Narcotic analgesics are preferred for pain relief because they bind to the various opiate receptor sites in the CNS. Morphine is often the preferred narcotic (remember, it causes respiratory depression). Another agonist is methadone. o Narcotic antagonists block the attachment of narcotics such as naloxone (Narcan) to the receptors. Once Narcan has been given, additional narcotics cannot be given until the Narcan effects have passed. Death and Grief o Do not take away the coping style used in a crisis state. o Denial is a very useful and needed tool for some at the initial stage. Support, do not challenge, unless it hinders or blocks treatment, endangering the patient Medical-Surgical Respiratory o Fever can cause dehydration because of excessive fluid loss due to diaphoresis. Increased temperature also increases metabolism and the demand for O2.o Clients at High Risk for Pneumonia Altered level of consciousness Depressed or absent gag and cough reflexes Susceptible to aspirating oropharyngeal secretions, including alcoholics, anesthetized individuals Brain injury Drug overdose Stroke victims Immunocompromised o Bronchial breath sounds are heard over areas of density or consolidation. Sound waves are easily transmitted over consolidated tissue. o Hydration Thins out the mucus trapped in the bronchioles and alveoli, facilitating expectoration Is essential for client experiencing fever Is important because 300 to 400 mL of fluid is lost daily by the lungs through evaporation o Irritability and restlessness are early signs of cerebral hypoxia; the client’s brain is not receiving enough O2. o Pneumonia Preventives Older adults: Flu shots; pneumonia immunizations; avoiding sources of infection and indoor pollutants (dust, smoke, and aerosols); no smoking Immunosuppressed and debilitated persons: Flu shots, pneumonia immunizations, infection avoidance, sensible nutrition, adequate intake, balance of rest and activity Comatose and immobile persons: Elevation of head of bed to feed and for 1 hour after feeding; frequently turning Patients with functional or anatomic asplenia: Flu and pneumonia immunizations o Exposure to tobacco smoke is the primary cause of COPD in the United States. o Compensation occurs over time in clients with chronic lung disease, and ABGs are altered. o As COPD worsens, the amount of O2 in the blood decreases (hypoxemia) and the amount of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood increases (hypercapnia), causing chronic respiratory acidosis (increased arterial carbon dioxide [Paco2]), which results in metabolic alkalosis (increased arterial bicarbonate) as compensation. o Not all clients with COPD are CO2 retainers, even when hypoxemia is present, because CO2 diffuses more easily across lung membranes than O2. o In advanced emphysema, due to the alveoli being affected, hypercarbia is a problem, rather than in bronchitis, where the airways are affected. o It is imperative that baseline data be obtained for the client. o Productive cough and comfort can be facilitated by semi-Fowler or high-Fowler position, which lessens pressure on the diaphragm by abdominal organs. Gastric distention becomes a priority in these clients because it elevates the diaphragm and inhibits full lung expansion. o Normal ABG Values pH: 7.35 to 7.45 PCO2: 35-45 mm Hg PO2: 80-100 mm Hg HCO3-: 21-28 mEq/L o Pink puffer: Barrel chest is indicative of emphysema and is caused by use of accessory muscles to breathe. The person works harder to breathe, but the amount of O2 taken in is adequate to oxygenate the tissues. o Blue bloater: Insufficient oxygenation occurs with chronic bronchitis and leads to generalized cyanosis and often right-sided heart failure (cor pulmonale). o Cells of the body depend on O2 to carry out their functions. Inadequate arterial oxygenation is manifested by cyanosis and slow capillary refill (3 seconds). A chronic sign is clubbing of the fingernails, and a late sign is clubbing of the fingers. o Nursing Skills: Respiratory Client Suctioning (Tracheal) Suction when adventitious breath sounds are heard, when secretions are present atendotracheal tube, and when gurgling sounds are noted. Use aseptic/sterile technique throughout procedure. Wear mask and goggles. Advance catheter until resistance is felt. Apply suction only when withdrawing catheter (gently rotate catheter when withdrawing). Never suction for more than 10 to 15 seconds, and pass the catheter only three or fewer times. Oxygenate with 100% O2 for 1 to 2 minutes before and after suctioning to prevent hypoxia. Ventilator Setting Maintenance Verify that alarms are on. Maintain settings and check often to ensure that they are specifically set as prescribed by health care provider. Verify functioning of ventilator at least every 4 hours. Oxygen Administration Nasal cannula: low O2 flow for low O2 concentrations (good for COPD) Simple face mask: low flow, but effectively delivers high O2 concentrations; cannot deliver 40% O2 Non-rebreather mask: low flow, but delivers highest O2 concentrations (60% to 90%) Partial rebreather mask: low-flow O2 reservoir bag attached; can deliver high O2 concentrations Venturi mask: high-flow system; can deliver exact O2 concentration Pulse Oximetry Easy measurement of O2 saturation Should be 90%, ideally above 95% Noninvasive, fastens to finger, toe, or earlobe No nail polish Must have good peripheral perfusion to be accurate Tracheostomy Care Aseptic technique (remove inner cannula only from stoma) Clean nondisposable inner cannula with H2O2; rinse with sterile saline 4 × 4 gauze dressing is butterfly-folded Respiratory Isolation Technique Mask is required for anyone entering room. Private room is required with negative air pressure. Client must wear mask if leaving room. Proper Use of an Inhaler Have client exhale completely. Grip mouthpiece (in mouth) only if client has a spacer; otherwise, keep the mouth open to bring in volume of air with misted medication. While inhaling slowly, push down firmly on the inhaler to release the medication. Use bronchodilator inhaler before steroid inhaler. Wait at least 1 minute between puffs (inhaled doses). After steroid inhaler use, patient must perform oral care to prevent fungal infections. o Health Promotion Eating consumes energy needed for breathing. Offer mechanically soft diets, which do not require as much chewing and digestion. Assist with feeding if needed. Prevent secondary infections; avoid crowds, contact with persons who have infectious diseases, and respiratory irritants (tobacco smoke). Teach client to report any change in characteristics of sputum. Encourage client to hydrate well (3 L/day) and decrease caffeine due to diuretic effect. Obtain immunizations when needed (flu and pneumonia). o When asked to prioritize nursing actions, use the ABC rule: Airway first Then breathing Then circulation **In CPR circumstances, follow the CAB guidelines. o Look and listen! If breath sounds are clear but the client is cyanotic and lethargic, adequate oxygenation is not occurring. o The key to respiratory status is assessment of breath sounds as well as visualization of the client. Breath sounds are better described, not named; e.g., sounds should be described as crackles, wheezes, or high-pitched whistling sounds rather than rales, rhonchi, etc., which may not mean the same thing to each clinical professional. o Watch for NCLEX-RN® questions that deal with O2 delivery. In adults, O2 must bubble through some type of water solution so it can be humidified if given at 4 L/min or delivered directly to the trachea. If given at 1 to 4 L/min or by mask or nasal prongs, the oropharynx and nasal pharynx provide adequate humidification. o With cancer of the larynx, the tongue and mouth often appear white, gray, dark brown, or black and may appear patchy. o Tracheostomy care involves cleaning the inner cannula, suctioning, and applying clean dressings. o Air entering the lungs is humidified along the nasobronchial tree. This natural humidifying pathway is gone for the client who has had a laryngectomy. If the air is not humidified before entering the lungs, secretions tend to thicken and become crusty. o A laryngectomy tube has a larger lumen and is shorter than the tracheostomy tube. Observe the client for any signs of bleeding or occlusion, which are the greatest immediate postoperative risks (first 24 hours). o Fear of choking is very real for laryngectomy clients. They cannot cough as they could earlier because the glottis is gone. Teach the glottal stop technique to remove secretions (take a deep breath, momentarily occlude the tracheostomy tube, cough, and simultaneously remove the finger from the tube). o Tuberculosis (TB) Skin Test A positive TB skin test in a healthy client is exhibited by an induration 10 mm or greater in diameter 48 to 72 hours after the skin test. Anyone who has received a bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine will have a positive skin test and must be evaluated with an initial chest radiograph. A health history with signs and symptoms form may be filled out annually until signs and symptoms arise; then another radiograph is required. Chest x-rays are required on new employment; employer may require an x-ray every 5 years. o Teaching is very important with the client with TB. Drug therapy is usually long term (6 months or longer). It is essential that the client take the medications as prescribed for the entire time. Skipping doses or prematurely terminating the drug therapy can result in a public health hazard. Teaching Points Rifampin: Reduces effectiveness of oral contraceptives; client should use other birth control methods during treatment; gives body fluids orange tinge; stains soft contact lenses Isoniazid (INH): Increased phenytoin (Dilantin) levels Ethambutol: Vision check before starting therapy and monthly thereafter; may have to take for 1 to 2 years Teach rationale for combination drug therapy to increase compliance. Resistance develops more slowly if several anti-TB drugs given, instead of just one drug at a time. o Some tumors are so large that they fill entire lobes of the lung. When removed, large spaces are left. Chest tubes are not usually used with these clients because it is helpful if the mediastinal cavity, where the lung used to be, fills up with fluid. This fluid helps to prevent the shift of the remaining chest organs to fill the empty space. o Chest Tubes If the chest tube becomes disconnected, do not clamp! Immediately place the end of the tube in a container of sterile saline or water until a new drainage system can be connected. If the chest tube is accidentally removed from the client, the nurse should cover with a dry sterile dressing. If an air leak is noted, tape the dressing on three sides only; this allows air to escape and prevents the formation of a tension pneumothorax. Notify the health care provider. Fluctuations (tidaling) in the fluid will occur if there is no external suction. These fluctuating movements are a good indicator that the system is intact; they should move upward with each inspiration and downward with each expiration. If fluctuations cease, check for kinked tubing, accumulation of fluid in the tubing, occlusions, or change in the client’s position, because expanding lung tissue may be occluding the tube opening. Remember, when external suction is applied, the fluctuations cease. o Various pathophysiologic conditions can be related to the nursing diagnosis Ineffective breathing patterns. Inability of air sacs to fill and empty properly (emphysema, cystic fibrosis) Obstruction of the air passages (carcinoma, asthma, chronic bronchitis) Accumulation of fluid in the air sacs (pneumonia) Respiratory muscle fatigue (COPD, pneumonia) Renal o Normally, kidneys excrete approximately 1 mL of urine per kg of body weight per hour. o For adults, total daily urine output ranges between 1500 and 2000 mL depending on the amount and type of fluid intake, amount of perspiration, environmental or ambient temperature, and the presence of vomiting or diarrhea. o Electrolytes are profoundly affected by kidney problems (a favorite NCLEX-RN topic). There must be a balance between extracellular fluid and intracellular fluid to maintain homeostasis. A change in the number of ions or in the amount of fluid will cause a shift in one direction or the other. Sodium and chloride are the primary extracellular ions. Potassium and phosphate are the primary intracellular ions. o In some cases, persons in ARF may not experience the oliguric phase but may progress directly to the diuretic phase, during which the urine output may be as much as 10 L per day. o Body weight is a good indicator of fluid retention and renal status. Obtain accurate weights of all clients with renal failure; obtain weight on the same scale at the same time every day. o Fluid Volume Alterations Excess Fluid Dyspnea Tachycardia JVD Peripheral edema Pulmonary edema Weight gain Fluid-Deficient Symptoms Decreased urine output Reduction in body weight Decreased skin turgor Dry mucous membranes Hypotension Tachycardia Weight loss o Watch for signs of hyperkalemia: dizziness, weakness, cardiac irregularities, muscle cramps, diarrhea, and nausea. o Potassium has a critical safe range (3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L) because it affects the heart, and any imbalance must be corrected by medications or dietary modification. Limit high-potassium foods (bananas, orange juice, cantaloupe, strawberries, avocados, spinach, fish) and salt substitutes, which are high in potassium. o Clients with renal failure retain sodium. With water retention, the sodium becomes diluted andserum levels may appear near normal. With excessive water retention, the sodium levels appear decreased (dilution). Limit fluid and sodium intake in ARF clients. o During oliguric phase, minimize protein breakdown and prevent rise in BUN by limiting protein intake. When the BUN and creatinine return to normal, ARF is determined to be resolved. o Accumulation of waste products from protein metabolism is the primary cause of uremia. Protein must be restricted in CRF clients. However, if protein intake is inadequate, a negative nitrogen balance occurs, causing muscle wasting. The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is most often used as an indicator of the level of protein consumption. o The major difference between dialysate for hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis is the amount of glucose. Peritoneal dialysis dialysate is much higher in glucose. For this reason, if the dialysate is left in the peritoneal cavity too long, hyperglycemia may occur. o Dialysis Covered by Medicare All persons in the United States are eligible for Medicare as of their first day of dialysis under special ESRD funding. Medicare card will indicate ESRD. Transplantation is covered by Medicare procedure; coverage terminates 6 months postoperative if dialysis is no longer required. o Protein intake is restricted until blood chemistry shows ability to handle the protein catabolites, urea and creatinine. Ensure high calorie intake so protein is spared for its own work; give hard candy, jelly beans, or flavored carbohydrate powders. o As kidneys fail, medications must often be adjusted. Of particular importance is digoxin toxicity because digitalis preparations are excreted by the kidneys. Signs of toxicity in adults include nausea, vomiting, anorexia, visual disturbances, restlessness, headache, cardiac dysrhythmias, and pulse 60 bpm. o The key to resolving UTIs with most antibiotics is to keep the blood level of the antibiotic constant. It is important to tell the client to take the antibiotics around the clock and not to skip doses so that a consistent blood level can be maintained for optimal effectiveness. o Location of the pain can help to determine the location of the stone. Flank pain usually means the stone is in the kidney or upper ureter. If the pain radiates to the abdomen or scrotum, the stone is likely to be in the ureter or bladder. Excruciating spastic-type pain is called colic. During kidney stone attacks, it is preferable to administer pain medications at regularly scheduled intervals rather than PRN to prevent spasm and optimize comfort. o Percutaneous nephrostomy: A needle or catheter is inserted through the skin into the calyx of the kidney. The stone may be dissolved by percutaneous irrigation with a liquid that dissolves the stone or by ultrasonic sound waves (lithotripsy) that can be directed through the needle or catheter to break up the stone, which then can be eliminated through the urinary tract. o Bladder spasms frequently occur after TURP. Inform the client that the presence of the oversized balloon on the catheter (30 to 45 mL inflated) will cause a continuous feeling of needing to void. The client should not try to void around the catheter because this can precipitate bladder spasms. Medications to reduce or prevent spasms should be given. o Instillation of hypertonic or hypotonic solution into a body cavity will cause a shift in cellular fluid. Use only sterile saline for bladder irrigation after TURP because the irrigation must be isotonic to prevent fluid and electrolyte imbalance. o Inform the client prior to discharge that some bleeding is expected after TURP. Large amounts of blood or frank bright bleeding should be reported. However, it is normal for the client to pass small amounts of blood as well as small clots during the healing process. He should rest quietly and continue drinking large amounts of fluid. Cardiovascular o What is the relationship of the kidneys to the cardiovascular system? The kidneys filter about 1 L of blood per minute. If cardiac output is decreased, the amount of blood going through the kidneys is decreased; urinary output is decreased. Therefore, a decreased urinary output may be a sign of cardiac problems. When the kidneys produce and excrete 0.5 mL of urine/kg of body weight or average 30mL/hr output, the blood supply is considered to be minimally adequate to perfuse the vital organs. o Angina is caused by myocardial ischemia. Which cardiac medications would be appropriate for acute angina? Digoxin: not appropriate; increases the strength and contractility of the heart muscle; the problem in angina is that the muscle is not receiving enough O2. Digoxin will not help. Nitroglycerin: appropriate; causes dilatation of the coronary arteries, allowing more O2 to get to the heart muscle. Atropine: not appropriate; increases heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation, which suppresses the heart rate; does not address the lack of O2 to the heart muscle. Propranolol (Inderal): not appropriate for acute angina attack; however, is appropriate for long-term management of stable angina because it acts as a beta blocker to control vasoconstriction. o Remember MONA when administering medications and treatments in the patient with myocardial infarction. MONA: morphine, oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin. o Blood pressure is created by the difference in the pressure of the blood as it leaves the heart and the resistance it meets flowing out to the tissues. Therefore, any factor that alters cardiac output or peripheral vascular resistance will alter blood pressure. Diet and exercise, smoking cessation, weight control, and stress management can control many factors that influence the resistance blood meets as it flows from the heart. o Remember the risk factors for HTN: heredity, race, age, alcohol abuse, increased salt intake, obesity, and use of oral contraceptives. o The number one cause of a stroke in hypertensive clients is noncompliance with medication regimen. HTN is often symptomless, and antihypertensive medications are expensive and have side effects. Studies have shown that the more clients know about their antihypertensive medications, the more likely they are to take them; teaching is important! o Decreased blood flow results in diminished sensation in the lower extremities. Any heat source can cause severe burns before the client realizes the damage is being done. o A client is admitted with severe chest pain and states that he feels a terrible tearing sensation in his chest. He is diagnosed with a dissecting aortic aneurysm. What assessments should the nurse obtain in the first few hours? Vital signs every hour Neurologic vital signs Respiratory status Urinary output Peripheral pulses o During aortic aneurysm repair, the large arteries are clamped for a period of time, and kidney damage can result. Monitor daily BUN and creatinine levels. Normal BUN is 10 to 20 mg/dL, and normal creatinine is 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL. The ratio of BUN to creatinine is 20:1. When this ratio increases or decreases, suspect renal problems. o Heparin prevents conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and prothrombin to thrombin, thereby inhibiting clot formation. Because the clotting mechanism is prolonged, do not cause tissue trauma, which may lead to bleeding when giving heparin subcutaneously. Do not massage area or aspirate; give in the abdomen between the pelvic bones, 2 inches from umbilicus; rotate sites. o Anticoagulants Heparin Antagonist: protamine sulfate Lab: PTT or aPTT determines efficacy Keep 1.5 to 2.5 times normal control Warfarin (Coumadin) Antagonist: vitamin K Lab: PT determines efficacy Keep 1.5 to 2.5 times normal control INR (international normalized ratio): desirable therapeutic level usually 2:3 (reflects how long it takes a blood sample to clot)o A Holter monitor offers continuous observation of the client’s heart rate. To make assessment of the rhythm strips most meaningful, teach the client to keep a record of: Medication times and doses Chest pain episodes: type and duration Valsalva maneuver (straining at stool, sneezing, coughing) Sexual activity Exercise and other activities o Cardioversion is the delivery of synchronized electrical shocks to the myocardium. o Difference in synchronous and asynchronous pacemakers: Synchronous, or demand: Pacemaker fires only when the client’s heart rate falls below a rate set on the generator. Asynchronous, or fixed: Pacemaker fires at a constant rate. o Restricting sodium reduces salt and water retention, thereby reducing vascular volume and preload. o Digitalis Side effects of digitalis are increased when the client is hypokalemic. Digitalis has a negative chronotropic effect (i.e., it slows the heart rate). Hold the digitalis if the pulse rate is 60 or 120 bpm (90 bpm in an infant) or has markedly changed rhythm. Bradycardia, tachycardia, and dysrhythmias may be signs of digitalis toxicity; these signs include nausea, vomiting, and headache in adults. If withheld, consult with physician. o Infective endocarditis damage to heart valves occurs with the growth of vegetative lesions on valve leaflets. These lesions pose a risk for embolization, erosion, or perforation of the valve leaflets or abscesses within adjacent myocardial tissue. Valvular stenosis or regurgitation (insufficiency), most commonly of the mitral valve, can occur, depending on the type of damage inflicted by the lesions, and can lead to symptoms of left- or right-sided heart failure. o Pericarditis The presence of a friction rub is an indication of pericarditis (inflammation of the lining of the heart). ST-segment elevation and T-wave inversion are also signs of pericarditis. o Acute and Subacute Infective Endocarditis There are two types of infective endocarditis: acute, which often affects individuals with previously normal hearts and healthy valves and carries a high mortality rate; and subacute, which typically affects individuals with preexisting conditions, such as rheumatic heart disease, mitral valve prolapse, or immunosuppression. Intravenous drug abusers are at risk for both acute and subacute bacterial endocarditis. When this population develops subacute infective endocarditis, the valves on the right side of the heart (tricuspid and pulmonic) are typically affected because of the introduction of common pathogens that colonize the skin (Staphylococcus epidermis or Candida sp.) into the venous system. o In mitral valve stenosis, blood is regurgitated back into the left atrium from the left ventricle. In the early period, there may be no symptoms, but as the disease progresses, the client will exhibit excessive fatigue, dyspnea on exertion, orthopnea, dry cough, hemoptysis, or pulmonary edema. There will be a rumbling apical diastolic murmur, and atrial fibrillation is common. Gastrointestinal o A Fowler or semi-Fowler position is beneficial in reducing the amount of regurgitation as well as in preventing the encroachment of the stomach tissue upward through the opening in the diaphragm. o Stress can cause or exacerbate ulcers. Teach stress-reduction methods, and encourage those with a family history of ulcers to obtain medical surveillance for ulcer formation. o Clinical manifestations of GI bleeding: Pallor: conjunctival, mucous membranes, nail beds Dark, tarry stools Bright red or coffee-ground emesis Abdominal mass or bruit Decreased BP, rapid pulse, cool extremities (shock), increased respirations o The GI tract usually accounts for only 100 to 200 mL of fluid loss per day, although it filters up to 8 L per day. Large fluid losses can occur if vomiting or diarrhea exists.o Opiate drugs tend to depress gastric motility. However, they should be given with caution, Nurse should assess for abdominal distention; abdominal pain; abdominal rigidity; signs and symptoms of shock-increased HR; decreased BP, indicating possible perforation/GI bleed. o Diverticulosis is the presence of pouches in the wall of the intestine. There is usually no discomfort, and the problem goes unnoticed unless seen on radiologic examination (usually prompted by some other condition). Diverticulitis is an inflammation of the diverticula (pouches), which can lead to perforation of the bowel. o A client admitted with complaints of severe lower abdominal pain, cramping, and diarrhea is diagnosed as having diverticulitis. What are the nutritional needs of this client throughout recovery? Acute phase: NPO, graduating to liquids Recovery phase: no fiber or foods that irritate the bowel Maintenance phase: high-fiber diet with bulk-forming laxatives to prevent pooling of foods in the pouches where they can become inflamed; avoidance of small, poorly digested foods such as popcorn, nuts, seeds, etc. o Bowel Obstructions Mechanical: Due to disorders outside the bowel (hernia, adhesions) caused by disorders within the bowel (tumors, diverticulitis) or by blockage of the lumen in the intestine (intussusception, gallstone) Nonmechanical: Due to paralytic ileus, which does not involve any actual physical obstruction but results from inability of the bowel itself to function o A client admitted with complaints of constipation, thready stools, and rectal bleeding over the past few months is diagnosed with a rectal mass. What are the nursing priorities for this client? NPO NG tube (possibly an intestinal tube such as a Miller-Abbott) IV fluids Surgical preparations of bowel (if obstruction is complete) Foods and fluids are restricted for 8 to 10 hours before surgery if possible. If the patient has a bowel obstruction or perforation, bowel cleansing is contraindicated. Oral erythromycin and neomycin are given to further decrease the amount of colonic and rectal bacteria. If possible, all clients who require surgery for obstruction undergo NG intubation and suction before surgery. However, in cases of complete obstruction, surgery should proceed without delay Teaching (preoperative nutrition, etc.) o Diet recommended by the American Cancer Society to prevent bowel cancer: Eat more cruciferous vegetables (those from the cabbage family, such as broccoli, cauliflower, Brussels sprouts, cabbage, and kale). Increase fiber intake. Maintain average body weight. Eat less animal fat. o American Cancer Society recommendations for early detection of colon cancer: A digital rectal examination (DRE) every year after 40. A stool blood test every year after 50. A colonoscopy or sigmoidoscopy examination every 10 years after the age of 50 in averagerisk clients, or more often based on the advice of a physician. o An early sign of colon cancer is rectal bleeding. Encourage patients 50 years of age or older and those with increased risk factors to be screened yearly with fecal occult blood testing. Routine colonoscopy at 50 is also recommended. o Clinical Manifestations of Jaundice Yellow skin, sclera, or mucous membranes (bilirubin in skin) Dark-colored urine (bilirubin in urine) Chalky or clay-colored stools (absence of bilirubin in stools) o Fetor hepaticus is a distinctive breath odor of chronic liver disease. It is characterized by a fruity or musty odor that results from the damaged liver’s inability to metabolize and detoxify mercaptan,which is produced by the bacterial degradation of methionine, a sulfurous amino acid. o For treatment of ascites, paracentesis and peritoneovenous shunts (LeVeen and Denver shunts) may be indicated. o Esophageal varices may rupture and cause hemorrhage. Immediate management includes insertion of an esophagogastric balloon tamponade (a Blakemore-Sengstaken or Minnesota tube). Other therapies include vasopressors, vitamin K, coagulation factors, and blood transfusions. o Ammonia is not broken down as usual in the damaged liver; therefore, the serum ammonia level rises. o Damaged liver: the metabolism of drugs is slowed down so they remain in the system longer (patient at risk for toxicity). o Provide an Environment Conducive to Eating For clients who are anorexic or nauseated: Remove strong odors immediately; they can be offensive and increase nausea. Encourage client to sit up for meals; this can decrease the propensity to vomit. Serve small, frequent meals. Give antiemetic prior to eating. o Liver tissue is destroyed by hepatitis. Rest and adequate nutrition are necessary for regeneration of the liver tissue being destroyed by the disease. Many drugs are metabolized in the liver, so drug therapy must be scrutinized carefully. Caution the client that recovery takes many months, and previously taken medications and/or over-the-counter drugs should not be resumed without the health care provider’s directions. o Acute pancreatic pain is located retroperitoneally. Any enlargement of the pancreas causes the peritoneum to stretch tightly. Therefore, sitting up or leaning forward reduces the pain. o Following an ERCP, the client may feel sick. The scope is placed in the gallbladder, and the stones are crushed and left to pass on their own. These clients may be prone to pancreatitis. o Nonsurgical management of a client with cholecystitis includes: Low-fat diet Medications for pain and clotting if required Decompression of the stomach via NG tube Endocrine o Thyroid storm is a life-threatening event that occurs with uncontrolled hyperthyroidism due to Graves disease. Other causes include childbirth, congestive heart failure (CHF), diabetic ketoacidosis, infection, pulmonary embolism, emotional distress, trauma, and surgery. Symptoms include fever, tachycardia, agitation, anxiety, and HTN. Primary nursing interventions include maintaining an airway and adequate aeration. o Propylthiouracil (PTU) and methimazole (Tapazole) are antithyroid drugs used to treat thyroid storm. Propranolol (Inderal) may be given to decrease excessive sympathetic stimulation. o Postoperative thyroidectomy: Be prepared for the possibility of laryngeal edema. Put a tracheostomy set at the bedside along with O2 and a suction machine; calcium gluconate should be easily accessible. o Normal serum calcium is 9.0 to 10.5 mEq/L. The best indicator of parathyroid problems is a decrease in the client’s calcium compared to the preoperative value. o If two or more parathyroid glands have been removed, the chance of tetany increases dramatically: Monitor serum calcium levels (9.0 to 10.5 mg/dL is normal range). Check for tingling of toes and fingers and around the mouth. Check Chvostek sign (twitching of lip after a tap over the parotid gland means it is positive). Check Trousseau sign (carpopedal spasm after BP cuff is inflated above systolic pressure means it is positive). o Myxedema coma can be precipitated by acute illness, withdrawal of thyroid medication, anesthesia, use of sedatives, or hypoventilation (with the potential for respiratory acidosis and CO2 narcosis). The airway must be kept patent and ventilator support used as indicated. o Many people take steroids for a variety of conditions. NCLEX-RN questions often focus on the need to teach clients the importance of following the prescribed regimen precisely. They should be cautioned against stopping the medications suddenly and should be informed that it is necessary to taper off the dosage when taking steroids.o Addison crisis is a medical emergency. It is brought on by sudden withdrawal of steroids or a stressful event (trauma, severe infection) or exposure to cold, overexertion, or decrease in salt intake. Vascular collapse: Hypotension and tachycardia occur; administer IV fluids at a rapid rate until stabilized. Hypoglycemia: Administer IV glucose. Essential to reversing the crisis: Administer parenteral hydrocortisone. Aldosterone replacement: Administer fludrocortisone acetate (Florinef) PO (available only as oral preparation) with simultaneous administration of salt (sodium chloride) if client has a sodium deficit. o Teach clients to take steroids with meals to prevent gastric irritation. They should never skip doses. If they have nausea or vomiting for more than 12 to 24 hours, they should contact the physician. o Why do clients with diabetes have trouble with wound healing? High blood glucose contributes to damage of the smallest vessels, the capillaries. This damage causes permanent capillary scarring, which inhibits the normal activity of the capillary. This phenomenon causes disruption of capillary elasticity and promotes problems such as diabetic retinopathy, poor healing of breaks in the skin, and cardiovascular abnormalities. o Glycosylated Hgb (HbA1c): Indicates glucose control over previous 90-120 days (life of red blood cells [RBCs]) Is a valuable measurement of diabetes control Informs diagnosis of diabetes and prediabetes o The body’s response to illness and stress is to produce glucose. Therefore, any illness results in hyperglycemia. o If in doubt whether a client is hyperglycemic or hypoglycemic, treat for hypoglycemia. o Self-monitoring of blood glucose (SMBG): Uses techniques that are specific to each meter Frequency of monitoring based on treatment regimen, change in meals, illness, and exercise regimen Requires recording results and reporting results to health care provider at time of visit Results of monitoring used to assess the efficacy of therapy and to guide adjustments in medical nutrition therapy, exercise, and medications to achieve the best possible blood glucose control o Insulin is prescribed in basal/bolus and correction factor therapy. The goal of insulin therapy is to mimic the body’s normal basal/bolus secretion of insulin. Basal insulin (Long-acting and intermediate-acting insulin) suppresses glucose production between meals and overnight. Bolus insulin or mealtime limits hyperglycemia after meals. Correction factor is the amount of insulin needed to correct hyperglycemia, usually given pre-meal. Musculoskeletal o A client comes to the clinic complaining of morning stiffness, weight loss, and swelling of both hands and wrists. Rheumatoid arthritis is suspected. Which methods of assessment might the nurse use, and which methods would the nurse not use? Use inspection, palpation, and strength testing. Do not assess range of motion (ROM); this activity promotes pain because ROM is limited. o In the joint, the normal cartilage becomes soft, fissures and pitting occur, and the cartilage thins. Spurs form and inflammation sets in. The result is deformity marked by immobility, pain, and muscle spasm. The prescribed treatment regimen is corticosteroids for the inflammation; splinting, immobilization, and rest for the joint deformity; and NSAIDs for the pain. o Synovial tissues line the bones of the joints. Inflammation of this lining causes destruction of tissue and bone. Early detection of rheumatoid arthritis can decrease the amount of bone and joint destruction. Often the disease goes into remission. Decreasing the amount of bone and joint destruction reduces the amount of disability. o What activity recommendations should the nurse provide a client with rheumatoid arthritis? Do not exercise painful, swollen joints. Do not exercise any joint to the point of pain. Perform exercises slowly and smoothly; avoid jerky movements. o NCLEX-RN questions often focus on the fact that avoiding sunlight is key in the management oflupus erythematosus; this is what differentiates it from other connective-tissue diseases. o Postmenopausal, thin white women are at highest risk for development of osteoporosis. Encourage exercise, a diet high in calcium, and supplemental calcium. Tums are an excellent source of calcium, but they are also high in sodium, so hypertensive or edematous individuals should seek another source of supplemental calcium. o The main cause of fractures in older adults, especially in women, is osteoporosis. The main fracture sites seem to be hip, vertebral bodies, and Colles fracture of the forearm. o What type of fracture is more difficult to heal: an extracapsular fracture (below the neck of the femur) or an intracapsular fracture (in the neck of the femur)? The blood supply enters the femur below the neck of the femur. Therefore, an intracapsular fracture heals with greater difficulty, and there is a greater likelihood that necrosis will occur because the fracture is cut off from the blood supply. o NCLEX-RN questions focus on safety precautions. Improper use of assistive devices can be very risky. When using a nonwheeled walker, the client should lift and move the walker forward and then take a step into it. The client should avoid scooting the walker or shuffling forward into it; these movements take more energy and provide less stability than does a single movement. o The risk for the development of a fat embolism, a syndrome in which fat globules migrate into the bloodstream and combine with platelets to form emboli, is greatest in the first 36 hours after a fracture. It is more common in clients with multiple fractures, fractures of long bones, and fractures of the pelvis. The initial symptom of a fat embolism is confusion due to hypoxemia (check blood gases for PO2). Assess for respiratory distress, restlessness, irritability, fever, and petechiae. If an embolus is suspected, notify physician stat, draw blood gases, administer O2, and assist with endotracheal intubation. o In clients with hip fractures, thromboembolism is the most common complication. Prevention includes passive ROM exercises, use of elastic stocking, elevation of the foot of the bed 25 degrees to increase venous return, and low-dose heparin therapy. o Clients with fractures, edema, or casts on the extremities need frequent neurovascular assessment distal to the injury. Skin color, temperature, sensation, capillary refill, mobility, pain, and pulses should be assessed. o Assess the 5 Ps of neurovascular functioning: pain, paresthesia, pulse, pallor, and paralysis. o Orthopedic wounds have a tendency to ooze more than other wounds. A suction drainage device usually accompanies the client to the postoperative floor. Check drainage often. o NCLEX-RN questions about joint replacement focus on complications. A big problem after joint replacement is infection. o Fractures of bone predispose the client to anemia, especially if long bones are involved. Check hematocrit every 3 to 4 days to monitor erythropoiesis. o After hip replacement, instruct the client not to lift the leg upward from a lying position or to elevate the knee when sitting. This upward motion can pop the prosthesis out of the socket. o Immobile clients are prone to complications: skin integrity problems, formation of urinary calculi (client’s milk intake may be limited), and venous thrombosis (client may be on prophylactic anticoagulants). o The residual limb (stump) should be elevated on one pillow. If the residual limb (stump) is elevated too high, the elevation can cause a contracture. Neurosensory o Glaucoma is often painless and symptom-free. It is usually picked up as part of a regular eye examination. o Eye drops are used to cause pupil constriction because movement of the muscles to constrict the pupil also allows aqueous humor to flow out, thereby decreasing the pressure in the eye. Pilocarpine is commonly used. Caution client that vision may be blurred for 1 to 2 hours after administration of pilocarpine and that adaptation to dark environments is difficult because of pupillary constriction (the desired effect of the drug) o There is an increased incidence of glaucoma in older adult populations. Older clients are prone to problems associated with constipation. Therefore, the nurse should assess these clients for constipation and postoperative complications associated with constipation and should implement a plan of care directed at prevention of and, if necessary, treatment for constipation.o The lens of the eye is responsible for projecting light onto the retina so that images can be discerned. Without the lens, which becomes opaque with cataracts, light cannot be filtered and vision is blurred. o When the cataract is removed, the lens is gone, making prevention of falls important. When the lens is replaced with an implant, vision is better. o The ear consists of three parts: the external ear, the middle ear, and the inner ear. Inner ear disorders, or disorders of the sensory fibers going to the CNS, often are neurogenic in nature and may not be helped with a hearing aid. External and middle ear problems (conductive) may result from infection, trauma, or wax buildup. These types of disorders are treated more successfully with hearing aids. o NCLEX-RN questi
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nursing 3210 exit hesi leadership and management legal aspects of nursing o often an nclex rn® question asks who should explain a surgical procedure to the client the answer is the health care prov