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NSG 5003 QUESTION BANK WITH ANSWER / NSG5003 QUESTION BANK WITH ANSWER (LATEST - 2021) | SOUTH UNIVERSITY $22.49   Add to cart

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NSG 5003 QUESTION BANK WITH ANSWER / NSG5003 QUESTION BANK WITH ANSWER (LATEST - 2021) | SOUTH UNIVERSITY

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NSG 5003 QUESTION BANK WITH ANSWER / NSG5003 QUESTION BANK WITH ANSWER (LATEST - 2021) | SOUTH UNIVERSITY

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  • May 25, 2021
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NSG 5003 QUESTIONS BANK AND ANSWERS


Chapter 15: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System


MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which pathway carries sensory information toward the central nervous system
(CNS)?
a. Ascending c. Somatic
b. Descending d. Efferent

2. Which type of axon transmits a nerve impulse at the highest rate?
a. Large nonmyelinated c. Small nonmyelinated
b. Large myelinated d. Small myelinated

3. Which nerves are capable of regeneration?
a. Nerves within the brain and spinal cord
b. Peripheral nerves that are cut or severed
c. Myelinated nerves in the peripheral nervous system
d. Unmyelinated nerves of the peripheral nervous system


4. The neurotransmitter, norepinephrine, is secreted in the:
a. Somatic nervous system c. Sympathetic postganglion
b. Parasympathetic preganglion d. Parasympathetic postganglion

5. Both oligodendroglia and Schwann cells share the ability to:
a. Form a myelin sheath c. Transport nutrients
b. Remove cellular debris d. Line the ventricles

6. During a synapse, what change occurs after the neurotransmitter binds to the
receptor?
a. The permeability of the presynaptic neuron changes; consequently, its membrane
potential is changed as well.
b. The permeability of the postsynaptic neuron changes; consequently, its membrane
potential is changed as well.
c. The postsynaptic cell prevents any change in permeability and destroys the action
potential.
d. The presynaptic cell synthesizes and secretes additional neurotransmitters.

7. What name is given to a large network of neurons within the brainstem that is
essential for maintaining wakefulness?
a. Midbrain c. Medulla oblongata
b. Reticular activating system d. Pons

8. Thought and goal-oriented behaviors are functions of which area of the brain?

,a. Cerebellum c. Prefrontal lobe
b. Limbic system d. Occipital lobe

9. The region responsible for the motor aspects of speech is located in the:
a. Wernicke area in the temporal lobe c. Wronka area in the parietal lobe
b. Broca area in the frontal lobe d. Barlow area in the occipital lobe


10. Parkinson and Huntington diseases are associated with defects in which area of
the brain?
a. Thalamus c. Cerebellum
b. Medulla oblongata d. Basal ganglia

11. Maintenance of a constant internal environment and the implementation of
behavioral patterns are main functions of which area of the brain?
a. Thalamus c. Subthalamus
b. Epithalamus d. Hypothalamus

12. The ability of the eyes to track moving objects through a visual field is
primarily a function of which colliculi?
a. Inferior c. Mid
b. Superior d. Posterior

13. What parts of the brain mediate the expression of affect, both emotional and
behavioral states?
a. Hypothalamus and subthalamus c. Limbic system and prefrontal cortex
b. Parietal and frontal lobes d. Basal ganglia and medulla oblongata

14. Reflex activities concerned with heart rate, blood pressure, respirations,
sneezing, swallowing, and coughing are controlled by which area of the brain?
a. Pons c. Cerebellum
b. Midbrain d. Medulla oblongata

15. From which part of the midbrain do cranial nerves V to VIII emerge?
a. Midbrain c. Medulla oblongata
b. Pons d. Lateral colliculi
16. From which part of the midbrain do cranial nerves IX to XII emerge?
a. Midbrain c. Medulla oblongata
b. Pons d. Lateral colliculi

17. Which area of the brain assumes the responsibility for conscious and
unconscious muscle synergy and for maintaining balance and posture?
a. Cerebrum c. Diencephalon
b. Cerebellum d. Brainstem

18. Which statement is true regarding upper motor neurons?
a. Upper motor neurons directly influence muscles.
b. They modify spinal reflex arcs.
c. Upper motor neurons are located in the gray matter of the spinal cord.
d. They extend their dendritic processes out of the CNS.
19. The membrane that separates the brain’s cerebellum from its cerebrum is the:
a. Tentorium cerebelli c. Arachnoid membrane

,b. Falx cerebri d. Falx cerebelli

20. The function of arachnoid villi is to:
a. Produce cerebrospinal fluid
b. Provide nutrients to the choroid plexuses
c. Transmit impulses within the meninges
d. Absorb cerebrospinal fluid into the cerebral venous sinuses


21. Where is the cerebrospinal fluid produced?
a. Arachnoid villi c. Ependymal cells
b. Choroid plexuses d. Pia mater

22. Which of the meninges closely adheres to the surface of the brain and spinal
cord and follows the sulci and fissures?
a. Dura mater c. Pia mater
b. Arachnoid d. Inner dura

23. Norepinephrine produces what primary response?
a. Increased contractility of the heart c. Vasoconstriction
b. Release of renin from the kidney d. Pupillary dilation

24. What is an effect of the sympathetic nervous system?
a. Stimulation of peristalsis c. Reduction in heart rate
b. Increased blood sugar levels d. Pupillary constriction
25. The brain receives approximately what percentage of the cardiac output?
a. 80% c. 20%
b. 40% d. 10%

26. The collateral blood flow to the brain is provided by the:
a. Carotid arteries c. Circle of Willis
b. Basal artery d. Vertebral arteries

27. The nurse recognizes that a patient’s diagnosis of a viral infection of the
brain’s meningeal layer is supported by which diagnostic laboratory result?
a. Chloride <110 mEq/L c. Protein <10 mg/dl
b. Leukocytes >10/mm3 d. Glucose <40 mg/dl

Chapter 17: Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral Hemodynamics, and
Motor Function


MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Cognitive operations cannot occur without the effective functioning of the
brain’s:
a. Pons c. Reticular activating system
b. Medulla oblongata d. Cingulate gyrus
2. Which intracerebral disease process is capable of producing diffuse
dysfunction?
a. Closed head trauma with bleeding c. Neoplasm

, b. Subdural pus collections d. Infarct emboli

3. What is the most common infratentorial brain disease process that results in the
direct destruction of the reticulating activation system (RAS)?
a. Cerebrovascular disease c. Neoplasms
b. Demyelinating disease d. Abscesses

4. What stimulus causes posthyperventilation apnea (PHVA)?
a. Changes in PCO2 levels c. Damage to the forebrain
b. Changes in PaCO2 levels d. Any arrhythmic breathing pattern

5. Posthyperventilation apnea (PHVA) ceases and rhythmic breathing is resumed
when levels of arterial:
a. Carbon dioxide increase c. Oxygen increase
b. Carbon dioxide become normal d. Oxygen decrease

6. Cheyne-Stokes respirations are described as a:
a. Sustained deep rapid but regular pattern of breathing
b. Crescendo-decrescendo pattern of breathing, followed by a period of apnea
c. Prolonged inspiratory period, gradually followed by a short expiratory period
d. Completely irregular breathing pattern with random shallow, deep breaths and
irregular pauses
7. Vomiting is associated with central nervous system (CNS) injuries that
compress which of the brain’s anatomic locations?
a. Vestibular nuclei in the lower brainstem
b. Floor of the third ventricle
c. Any area in the midbrain
d. Diencephalon
8. Which midbrain dysfunction causes pupils to be pinpoint size and fixed in
position?
a. Diencephalon dysfunction
b. Oculomotor cranial nerve dysfunction
c. Dysfunction of the tectum
d. Pontine dysfunction

9. What characteristic is a medical criterion of brain death?
a. Akinetic mutism c. Apnea
b. Coma d. Locked-in syndrome
10. A clinical manifestation caused by damage to the lower pons includes an
abnormal:
a. Flexion with or without extensor response of the lower extremities
b. Extension response of the upper and lower extremities
c. Extension response of the upper extremities and flexion response of the lower
extremities
d. Flaccid response in the upper and lower extremities

11. Which person is at the greatest risk for developing delirium?
a. An individual with diabetes celebrating a 70th birthday
b. A depressed Hispanic woman
c. An individual on the second day after hip replacement

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