Fall 2022 Comprehensive-111- Patient Care Final (Answered)
Fall 2021 Comprehensive-111- Patient Care Final 1. Which of the following patient factors can be observed? (1) Level of consciousness (2) Degree of pain (3) Breathing difficulty 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, and 3 2. Cyanosis is an indication of: Liver failure Kidney failure Metastasis Insufficient oxygen 3. In order to be thorough in patient assessment, a registered technologist should: Use observation, interview, listening, and evaluation. Read the nurses' notes from the patient chart only. Ask the referring physician why the imaging procedure is needed. Document the time and date of the exam in the patient chart. 4. Which of the following are essential components of a patient history? (1) Onset of problem (2) Presence of pain (3) Aggravating factors 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, and 3 5. If a patient has been referred for chest radiography, which of the following is an example of a system-specific symptom that should be assessed as a part of the patient history? Previous surgeries Presence or absence of cough Blood in stool What factors alleviate the problem 6. The electronic device commonly located on the top of a crash cart and used to reverse cardiac fibrillation or asystole is termed a: C-arm Laryngoscope Defibrillator Pulse oximeter 7. Which level is used to designate the most basic emergency services that are available? Level I Level II Level III Level IV 8. The medical term for a collapsed lung is: Atelectasis Fibrillation Pleural effusion Pleurisy – 9. In a city with several major industries that use toxic chemicals, what plan is needed to protect its citizens in the event of a major industrial accident? Evacuation plan Disaster response Trauma centers Emergency codes 10. Which of the following violates electrical safety rules? Overloading an electrical outlet Regular inspection of equipment Having an electrician replace a damaged plug Use of a grounded plug 11. A Class A fire extinguisher should be used on fires fueled by: Electrical wiring Diesel fuel Combustible gas Wood 12. The source of fire of greatest concern in imaging departments is: Paper waste Electrical equipment Chemicals Oxygen 13. Which of the following items in the imaging department would be regulated by the EPA? Cleaning products Accuracy of collimators Disposal of biohazardous waste Repeat rates 14. A mobile x-ray machine is parked in a hallway near a fire exit. Which of the following statements is true? The mobile unit is a hazard since it may cause someone using the exit to collide with it and it blocks access to the exit. The mobile unit is in a safe place as long as the other fire exits are accessible. The mobile unit is not a hazard because it is not plugged into an outlet. There is not enough information to evaluate this situation. 15. An elderly patient asks you to hold her purse while she uses the restroom. Which of the following would be the best response? Provide her with a locker to store her personal belongings. Hold her purse, but wait right by the restroom door so that you can return it immediately. Ignore her request. Tell the patient that she will have to manage in the restroom with her purse 16. Which of the following are required for a fire to burn? (1) Oxygen (2) A fuel (3) Heat 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, and 3 17. The most effective way to use a fire extinguisher is to point at a steady target. True or False 18. An animal or plant that nourishes another organism is termed a: Microorganism Host Pathogen Fungus 19. Which infection-causing agent can only reproduce within a living cell? Fungus Parasite Bacteria Virus 20. Which type of hepatitis virus is of primary concern to health care workers? Hepatitis A Hepatitis B Hepatitis C Hepatitis D 21. The use of non-vocal means to send messages and exchange information defines: Verbal communication Nonverbal communication Simple communication Compound communication 22. Which of the following are factors of verbal communications? Voice volume and tone Touch and eye contact Hygiene and appearance Body language and humor 23. Which of the following are factors of nonverbal communications? Voice volume and grammar Hygiene and appearance Humor and touch Grammar and body language 24. Which of the following statements is true regarding communications? Using medical terminology to explain procedures to patients will impress and emphasize intelligence and competence. Speaking very loudly and rapidly in emergency situations is an effective communication tool. A safe practice is to avoid touching patients of the opposite sex to avoid any chance of miscommunications. Poor posture can convey a lack of confidence to others. 25. Which of the following statements about personal bias are true? Bias can interfere with quality of patient care. Bias does not affect patient care quality. Bias improves the quality of patient care. The quality of patient care is not affected when one is aware of their personal bias. 26. Which core value of human rights law provides for the right of persons with disability to have self-directed actions and behaviors? Solidarity Authority Autonomy Dignity 27. The proper way to carry a heavy object is to: Hold the object as far away from the center of gravity as possible Hold the object as close to the center of gravity as possible Use a narrow base of support Align the object parallel to the base of support 28. The scientific study of humans and their work, including the anatomic, physiologic, psychologic, and mechanical principles affecting the efficient use of human energy, defines: Body mechanics Ergonomics Kinesiology Base of support 29. What nonverbal skill may be used to assist communications with a patient who is blind? Touch Eye contact Body language Good hygiene 30. Which of the following would be the best practice when imaging a patient who is deaf and uses sign language? Write down all instructions. Use body language to demonstrate. Speak slowly with good eye contact so patient can read your lips. Obtain an interpreter to assist in the communications for the procedure. 31. Blood-borne pathogens of concern to health care workers are: HIV and AIDS HIV and hepatitis B and C Hepatitis B and E Hepatitis and staphylococcus bacteria 32. The most common occupational exposure to blood-borne pathogens is: Needlestick injury Cleaning contaminated equipment Improper hand hygiene Failure to wear proper protective apparel 33. Health care workers can protect themselves from exposure to airborne pathogens by: Strict hand hygiene Careful handling of contaminated objects Wearing special filter masks Wearing an oxygen cannula 34. In terms of the cycle of infection, any environment in which a pathogen can flourish is termed a: Host Exit portal Transmission mode Reservoir 35. What population is at the greatest risk as a susceptible host? Pediatric patients Elderly patients Immunocompromised patients Healthy health care workers 36. An inanimate object that has been contaminated by an infectious agent is called a: Pathogen Fomite Vector Carrier 37. Which of the following might be an exit portal for tuberculosis? A cough or sneeze A bleeding wound Saliva Sweat 38, Which of the following is the mode of transmission for E. coli bacteria? Vector Blood-borne Airborne 39. You are employed as a radiographer in a large medical facility. You wake up with fever and a nasty cough. You are scheduled to work trauma, and you know one of your co-workers is on maternity leave and another is away at a CE conference. What should you do? Go to work despite your illness. Call another co-worker to trade to a later shift to give time for your medicine to bring your fever down. Call in sick to avoid transmitting your illness to co-workers and patients. Report for work early and request to trade to surgery so you can wear a mask. 40. You are having coffee with a friend at a small diner. Suddenly, an elderly gentleman at a nearby table jumps up clutching his throat. His face is very red. He is most likely experiencing: ARDS An asthma attack Acute respiratory failure An airway obstruction 41. Major trauma, such as a burn, may cause a medical emergency that precedes respiratory failure. This medical emergency is known as: Acute respiratory distress syndrome Respiratory syncytial virus Asthma Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 42. A slow heartbeat, usually defined as slower than 60 beats per minute, is termed: Tachypnea Tachycardia Bradypnea Bradycardia 43. What is pyrexia? Fever High blood pressure High pulse rate Slow, shallow respirations 44. Which of the following tools is used to measure blood pressure? Thermometer and second hand on a watch Sphygmomanometer and stethoscope Palpation of surface artery and second hand on a watch Pulse oximeter 45. What is the normal pulse rate range for adults? 40 to 80 beats per minute 50 to 90 beats per minute 60 to 100 beats per minute 70 to 120 beats per minute 46. Normal oxygen saturation levels as provided by pulse oximetry are: 25% to 35% 50% to 65% 75% to 90% 95% to 100% 47. A patient with a blood pressure of 150/96 would be characterized as: Hypotensive Hypertensive Bradytensive 48. Which of the following are common descriptors of pain quality? (1) Dull (2) Throbbing (3) Chilling 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, and 3 49. The ability to understand and perceive the emotions of others is termed: Sympathy Assertiveness Empathy Aggression 50. Sharing the sorrow or troubles of another person demonstrates: Sympathy Empathy Assertiveness Regret 51. A calm, but firm expression of oneself is the proper use of: Empathy Sympathy Aggression Assertiveness - Assertiveness 52. What is the key to a professional attitude? Treating others with respect and kindness Being aggressive when confronted Always letting others have their way Having sympathy for others 53. Which of the following emotions generally has a negative effect on one's professional attitude? Sympathy Empathy Aggression 54. The proper medical term for a heart attack is: Acute syncopal episode Vertigo Acute myocardial infarction Cardiac arrest 55. Coronary artery disease is often the cause of a burning or tingling sensation in the chest termed Acute syncopal episode Angina pectoris Cardiac arrest Ketoacidosis 56. Which of the following should be done first in response to a cardiac arrest patient? Oxygen administration Defibrillation Use the Glasgow Coma Scale to assess. Gently shake and verbally question for a response. 57. Which type of transfer requires a primary, stronger person to lift the patient's torso while another person lifts the patient's lower limbs? Standby assist Assisted standing pivot Two-person lift Hydraulic lift 58. Which of the following is an important consideration when transporting patients who have a urinary catheter? Keep the collection bag 18 to 20 inches above the insertion site. Keep the collection bag below the level of the urinary bladder. Keep the collection bag level with the urinary bladder. The height of the collection bag is not a consideration. 59. Which of the following should be assessed prior to patient transfer and movement? (1) Overall mobility (2) Current medications (3) Mental status 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, and 3 60. A drop in blood pressure that occurs with changes in body position from recumbent to upright is termed: Traumatic hypotension Enigmatic hypotension Orthostatic hypotension Positional shock 61. All of the following are safety rules regarding patient transfer except for: Provide sufficient pain medication prior to transfer to increase patient comfort. Allow the patient to assist with transfer as much as they are capable. Use good body mechanics during transfer. Obtain appropriate number of personnel to accommodate patient size and condition. 62. The practice of separating infectious patients from others and carefully controlling items that come in contact with these patients is called: Standard Precautions Environmental asepsis Transmission-based precautions Protective precautions 63. Before entering the room of a patient who is under protective precautions, the first step is to: Perform hand hygiene Don sterile gloves Put on a surgical mask Put on a gown 64. A system of protective guidelines used to protect against disease transmission defines: Occupational safety Standard Precautions Standard operating procedures Material safety data 65. According to Standard Precautions, personal barriers can be worn to protect the: (1) skin (2) eyes (3) respiratory system 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, and 3 66. You have an order to obtain a chest and KUB on a patient diagnosed with MRSA. Due to the patient's weakened and contagious condition, the order is changed from routine to mobile. What type of transmission-based precautions would you expect when you arrive at the patient's room? Droplet Contact Airborne MRSA does not require transmission-based precautions. 67. What type of precautions would be used when working with a patient with bronchogenic carcinoma? Contact Droplet Airborne Cancers do not require transmission-based precautions. 68. What changes with age and requires different communications strategies to alleviate? Fears and anxieties Hormones Physical strength Nutritional needs 69. The process of decreasing the number of infectious agents present in an environment defines: Surgical asepsis Medical asepsis Hygiene Standard Precautions 70. Which of the following is considered the most effective procedure in medical asepsis? Wearing protective apparel Proper linen disposal Proper sharps disposal Hand hygiene 71. How often should the x-ray table be cleaned? After every procedure Twice a day Twice a week Monthly 72. Which of the following would apply when disposing of linens that are visibly soiled with blood? (1) Pour blood-contaminated areas with 1:10 bleach solution.(2) Wear gloves to handle linens. (3) Dispose of linens in biohazard container 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, and 3 73. Which of the following is the proper method to disinfect an x-ray table after a procedure? Disinfect from the most contaminated area to the least contaminated area. Disinfect from the least contaminated area to the most contaminated area. Disinfect in a circular pattern beginning at the center and moving outward. Disinfect in a circular patent beginning at the edge and moving toward the center. 74. Which type of seizure is characterized by staring into space and eye fluttering? Tonic-clonic Grand mal Absence Syncopal 75. The medical term for fainting is:. Vertigo Syncope Seizure Anaphylaxis 76. Which of the following is a symptom of a stroke? One side of face drooping Respiratory depression Tachycardia Shaking and jerking of the body 77. Epistaxis is the medical term for: Dizziness Fainting A stroke A nosebleed 78. Nausea and/or vomiting may be symptoms of all of the following except: GI infections Food poisoning Cerebrovascular accident (CVA) Head injuries 79. Which of the following occurs due to either an ischemic or hemorrhage episode in the brain? Hypoglycemia Cerebrovascular accident (CVA) Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome Epistaxis 80. Which type of diabetic emergency occurs due to the blood sugar dropping too low? Ketoacidosis Hyperglycemic coma Hypoglycemia Stroke 81. HIPAA stands for: Health Information Privacy and Accessibility Act Health Information Privacy and Accountability Act Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act Health Insurance Portability and Accessibility Act 82.Which of the following will increase comfort when the patient is positioned supine? (1) Elevating the knees on a radiolucent support (2) Placing a radiolucent pad on the table (3) Providing a pillow to support the head, when possible 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, and 3 83. All of the following are reasons to use immobilization except: Reduce risk of imaging voluntary motion. Increase patient comfort. Improve image quality. Increase patient intimidation. 84. Which of the following immobilization devices would be used for a chest x-ray of a 2-year-old patient? Pigg-O-Stat Tape and IR holder 45-degree wedge sponge Plexiglass square 85. Which of the following immobilization techniques might cause ill-effects if applied or used improperly with certain patient populations? (1) Adhesive tape (2) Sponges (3) Sandbags 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, and 3 86. Which of the following are the essential components of feedback and listening? Response, restate, and reflect Register, recognize, and respond Restate, respond, and recognize Reflect, relinquish, and renounce 87. What is the purpose of responding, restating, and reflecting during interpersonal communications? Build rapport Increase miscommunications Emphasize verbal communications Emphasize nonverbal communications 88. What is the primary guideline for answering patient questions? Refer every question to a physician. Answer all questions to the best of your ability. Only answer questions related to the chief complaint. Answer only those questions that are within your scope of practice. 89. Bleeding into the thoracic cavity is termed: Pneumothorax Hemothorax Atelectasis Pneumonia 90. All of the following are symptoms of a head injury except: Tachypnea Lethargy Headache Loss of consciousness 91. The deepest burns are classified as: A percentage of the total skin area First-degree Second-degree Third-degree 92. What is the appropriate method to handle a patient with a suspected extremity fracture? Make the patient move using their own power to lessen pain caused by touching the injured part. Obtain help to support the limb at the joints both proximal and distal to the injury to reduce the risk of exacerbation. Use one hand to quickly lift the injured limb at the distal joint while you place the IR. Use one hand to quickly lift the injured limb at the proximal joint while you place the IR. 93. Which of the following is true regarding handling of a patient with an open wound? Remove all dressings to avoid image artifacts. Imaging cannot be performed until the wound has been sutured. Leave the sterile dressing in place during imaging to avoid contamination. Reduce artifacts and the risk of infection by wetting the dressing with saline prior to imaging. 94. What is the purpose of designating a team approach to imaging isolation patients in the radiology department? To minimize contamination To maximize efficiency To increase technologist experience in patient care All of the above 95. When disposing of contaminated linens, the edges: should be grasped to minimize contact. should not be touched to minimize contact. should be shaken vigorously to remove contaminants. should be folded toward the middle to contain contaminants. 96. After transferring an isolation patient back to to his or her room, the x-ray room must be: closed to other patients and personnel for a minimum of one hour. closed for the remainder of the work day. cleaned and disinfected following proper procedures. cleaned and disinfected and closed for a minimum of one hour. 97. Paleness or a lack of skin color is termed: Shock Vertigo Lethargy Pallor 98. Which type of shock is caused by a loss of blood volume? Hypovolemic Vasogenic Neurogenic Cardiogenic 99. Which of the following are symptoms of shock? Lethargy and anxiety Decreased blood pressure and tachycardia Cold, clammy skin and bradycardia Tachypnea and lethargy 100. Which federal law protects confidentiality, access, and security of electronic health information? The CARE Bill Radiation Protection Act HIPAA All of the above are federal laws related to confidentiality and security of health records.
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fall 2021 comprehensive 111 patient care final
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comprehensive 111 patient care final
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which of the following patient factors can be observed
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cyanosis is an indication of
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in order to be thorough in p
