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ATI PN Pharmacology Proctored Exam| Questions and Answers with Rationales| Latest 2022 $12.29
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ATI PN Pharmacology Proctored Exam| Questions and Answers with Rationales| Latest 2022
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  • ATI Pharmacology (ATI)
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  • Rasmussen College

ATI PN Pharmacology Proctored Exam| Questions and Answers with Rationales| Latest 1. A client who returns from surgery for bowel resection complains of severe pain around the incision. Which assessment is most important for the practical nurse (PN) to obtain prior to the administration of morp...

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  • 25 juni 2022
  • 27
  • 2021/2022
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Onderwerpen

  • ati pharmacology
  • ati pharmacology
  • ati
  • ati
  • ati pn pharmacology
  • ati pharmacology procro
  • ati pharmacology procrored
  • ati pharmacology practice
  • ati pharmacology proctored
  • ati pharmacology practice

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  • Rasmussen College
  • ATI Pharmacology (ATI)
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Voorbeeld van de inhoud

ATI PN Pharmacology Proctored Exam| Questions and
Answers with Rationales| Latest

1. A client who returns from surgery for bowel resection complains of severe pain around
the incision. Which assessment is most important for the practical nurse (PN) to obtain
prior to the administration of morphine sulfate?

A. Rate of respirations.
B. Core temperature.
C. Appearance of the incision.
D. Presence of bowel sounds.

Rationale:
Opioids cause respiratory depression, so the respiratory rate (A) should be assessed prior
to administration of morphine sulfate. (B, C, and D) do not address the concept of
medication safety.


2. A client receives a prescription for an oral opioid analgesic for post-operative pain.
Which adverse effect should the practical nurse (PN) monitor for with the client?

A. Constipation.
B. Photosensitivity.
C. Decreased heart rate.
D. Frequent urination.

Rationale:
Opioid analgesics slow peristalsis, which leads to constipation (A), a common side effect
of opiates. (B, C, and D) are not associated with opioid analgesics.


3. The healthcare provider prescribes celecoxib (Celebrex), a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory
drug (NSAID), for a client with osteoarthritis. Which finding in the client's history should
the practical nurse (PN) report?

A. Gout.
B. Hypertension.
C. Diabetes mellitus.
D. Peptic-ulcer disease. Peptic-ulcer disease.

, Rationale:
Celecoxib (Celebrex), an NSAID, causes gastrointestinal irritation and bleeding. Peptic-
ulcer disease is a contraindication to therapy with NSAIDs (D). (A, B, and C) are
inaccurate.


4. A client who received succinylcholine (Anectine), a neuromuscular blocking agent,
during a surgical procedure returns to the postoperative unit and is complaining of thirst
and wants to drink something. What assessment is most important for the practical nurse
(PN) to check before giving oral liquids?

A. Gag and swallow reflexes.
B. Appetite and interest in food.
C. Sensation and movement of all limbs.
D. Ability to breathe deeply on command.

Rationale:
Anectine, a neuromuscular blocking agent, paralyzes musculoskeletal muscles and the
gag reflex. To reduce the possibility of aspiration, the PN should confirm the return of the
client's gag and swallow reflexes (A) before allowing intake of food or liquids. (B, C, and
D) should be assessed but do not have the priority of initiating oral intake post-
anesthesia.


5. The healthcare provider prescribes an antibiotic for a male adolescent with an upper
respiratory tract infection who asks the practical nurse (PN) how long the prescribed
antibiotics should be taken. What information should the PN provide?

A. Continue the medication until all of the prescription is taken.
B. Use the medication for B. D. hours after the cough subsides.
C. Stop the medication when the temperature returns to normal.
D. Take any remaining capsules if the infection occurs again.

Rationale:
Although the client may feel better after B. D. hours of antibiotics, the prescription (A)
should be taken until all of it is used. If the antibiotic is discontinued because symptoms
have disappeared (B and C), pathogens have an opportunity to increase in virulence or
become resistant to the drug. Antibiotics should not be saved (D) for other infections, but
new symptoms should be evaluated by the healthcare provider.

, 6. The practical nurse asks a male client who came to the clinic with an upper respiratory
infection if he has any drug allergies. The client cannot remember if he does or if he ever
received penicillin. After administering the injection of penicillin, the PN tells the client
to stay for C. 0 minutes of observation. Which finding should the PN identify that is
indicative of a reaction to the medication?

A. Rash, itching, and hives.
B. Fever and abdominal pain.
C. Drop in temperature and blood pressure.
D. A vasovagal response with bradycardia.

Rationale:
A client who is unsure about the response to a new antibiotic, especially penicillin,
should be assessed for allergy to the drug after receiving a parenteral dose. The
symptoms that indicate an allergic reaction include rash, itching, hives (A) and
anaphylactic reactions causing laryngeal edema with difficulty breathing. (B, C, and D)
are not typical of allergic responses to penicillin.


7. The practical nurse (PN) is administering an enteric-coated form of erythromycin (EES)
to a male client with an upper respiratory infection. The client tells the PN that the
medication should be taken with his meals. What information should the PN offer the
client?

A. Taking EES with food anytime is recommended.
B. EES should be taken on an empty stomach.
C. ESS may be taken without regard to meals.
D. The best time to take EES is once daily at night.

Rationale:
The enteric-coated formulation of erythromycin may be taken without regard to meals
(C). Because an enteric coating makes the drug less irritating to the gastrointestinal tract,
this is likely to enhance compliance with drug therapy without regard to meals. (A, B,
and D) are not indicated.


8. Which adverse effect should the practical nurse monitor for in a client who is taking
amikacin (Amikin)?

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