ABSITE exam 2023 with 100% correct answers

A 75-year-old male presents to the clinic with a feeling of fullness in his throat and trouble swallowing. He complains of a worsening cough and more recently, bad breath to the point he avoids going out in public. What is the most appropriate first diagnostic test? A. Plain chest x-ray B. Barium esophagram C. Upper endoscopy D. Manometry E. CT of the chest Barium esophagram Correct. This patient presents with classic symptoms of Zenker's diverticulum, which is most commonly found in elderly patients and is believed to be the result of loss of tissue elasticity and muscle tone associated with aging. It is found herniating into Killian's triangle, located at the junction of the hypopharynx and the esophagus. The most appropriate first diagnostic test would be a barium esophagram, especially lateral views since it is usually found posteriorly alongside the esophagus. Upper endoscopy and manometry are not necessary in diagnosing Zenker's. A 50-year-old male presents to the ER with chest pain 6 hours after undergoing pneumatic dilation for achalasia. A water-soluble contrast UGI demonstrates a small well-contained perforation. The distal esophagus appears patent. The patient is hemodynamically stable. What is the next best step in management? A. Observe and attempt PO trial. B. Admit, keep NPO and start broad-spectrum antibiotics. C. Placement of a CT-guided mediastinal drain D. Immediate operative debridement E. Discharge patient with close follow-up. Admit, keep NPO and start broad-spectrum antibiotics. Correct. Most iatrogenic esophageal perforations secondary to pneumatic dilation are small and well-contained. The patient should be initially considered for non-operative management with antibiotics and close monitoring based on the aforementioned UGI findings if the distal obstruction has been resolved and the patient remains hemodynamically stable. Development of concerning signs may ultimately warrant intervention such as CT-guided drainage or operative management. Attempting PO trial or discharge would be inappropriate and premature at this time. A 35-year-old male presents to the ER complaining of chest pain. He went out to dinner 2 nights ago and rapidly developed abdominal cramps, emesis and diarrhea; however, he did not notice blood in his vomit or stools. This morning he woke up with acute onset of 10/10 chest pain and described feeling lightheaded and dizzy. He denies any recent alcohol use. Current vital signs are: HR 120 bpm, BP 100/68 mmHg, R 24/min and T 101.6°F. Which test is most likely to identify the diagnosis? A. EKG B. Flat plate and upright of the abdomen C. Esophagram D. Stool pathogens E. Urea breath test Esophagram Correct. The correct diagnosis is spontaneous esophageal perforation, or Boerhaave syndrome. The stem identifies a recent episode of food poisoning with significant emesis. Although this patient doesn't drink, alcoholism and binge drinking with emesis is another red flag for esophageal spontaneous perforation. Contrast esophagram is the test most likely to identify the diagnosis. CT scan, although not listed, is also helpful. EKG would be helpful to identify a cardiac etiology such as MI, but in our patient would likely just show sinus tachycardia. Abdominal series would help diagnose bowel obstruction or pneumoperitoneum from a hollow viscus perforation. Stool pathogen may be positive given recent gastroenteritis; however, this is not the cause of delayed sepsis. Urea breath test is used to diagnose H. pylori related to peptic ulcer disease. A 45-year-old male presents to the ER complaining of nausea and vomiting. He smells of alcohol and notes a change in emesis from bilious to bloody acutely this evening. Upon further questioning, he admits to binge drinking often to the point of vomiting. His current vitals are: HR 110 bpm, BP 120/74 mmHg, R 22/min and T 99.3°F. What is the likely cause of his symptoms? A. Peptic ulcer disease B. Esophageal varices C. Esophageal perforation D. Esophageal cancer E. Mallory-Weiss syndrome Mallory-Weiss syndrome Correct. The patient has Mallory-Weiss syndrome. From his history, he appears to be an alcoholic on a recent binge. Although the differential for upper GI bleeding and emesis is broad, bilious emesis which acutely changes to bloody emesis is highly suggestive of a Mallory-Weiss tear, which occurs at the junction of the esophagus and gastric cardia. Cancer is likely to have a more indolent obstructive presentation. Perforation often presents with tachycardia, leukocytosis and fever.