NCLEX-RN515 NURSING REVIEW DUMP QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS 100 CORRECT SCORE 2022/2023 UPDATE (RATED A+)
Sections
1. Questions Set A
2. Question Set B
3. Questions Set C
4. Questions Set D
5. Questions Set E
6. Questions Set F
7. Questions Set G
Exam A
QUESTION 1
To appropriately monito...
nclex rn515 nursing review dump questions with answers 100 correct score 20222023 update rated a sections 1 questions set a 2 question set b 3 questions set c 4 questions set d 5 questions
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NCLEX-RN515 NURSING REVIEW DUMP QUESTIONS
WITH ANSWERS 100 CORRECT SCORE 2022/2023
UPDATE (RATED A+)
Sections
1.Questions Set A
2.Question Set B
3.Questions Set C
4.Questions Set D
5.Questions Set E
6.Questions Set F
7.Questions Set G
Exam A
QUESTION 1
To appropriately monitor therapy and client progress, the nurse should be
aware that increased myocardial work and O2 demand will occur with which
of the following?
A. Positive inotropic therapy
B. Negative chronotropic therapy
C. Increase in balance of myocardial O2 supply and demand
D. Afterload reduction therapy
Correct Answer:
A Section:
Questions Set A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Inotropic therapy will increase contractility, which will increase
myocardial O2 demand. (B) Decreased heart rate to the point of
bradycardia will increase coronary artery filling time. This should be used
cautiously because tachycardia may be a compensatory mechanism to
increase cardiac output. (C) The goal in the care of the MI client with
angina is to maintain a balance between myocardial O2 supply and
demand. (D) Decrease in systemic vascular resistance by drug therapy,
such as IV nitroglycerin or nitroprusside, or intra-aortic balloon pump
therapy, would decrease myocardial work and O2 demand.
QUESTION 2
The nurse would need to monitor the serum glucose levels of a client
receiving which of the following medications, owing to its effects on
,glycogenolysis and insulin release?
A. Norepinephrine (Levophed)
B. Dobutamine (Dobutrex)
C. Propranolol (Inderal)
D. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
Correct Answer:
D Section:
Questions Set A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Norepinephrine’s side effects are primarily related to safe, effective
care environment and include decreased peripheral perfusion and
bradycardia. (B) Dobutamine’s side effects include increased heart rate and
blood pressure, ventricular ectopy, nausea, and headache. (C)
Propranolol’s side effects include elevated blood urea nitrogen, serum
transaminase, alkaline phosphatase, and lactic dehydrogenase. (D)
Epinephrine increases serum glucose levels by increasing glycogenolysis
and inhibiting insulin release. Prolonged use can elevate serum lactate
levels, leading to metabolic acidosis, increased urinary catecholamines,
false elevation of blood urea nitrogen, and decreased coagulation time.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following medications requires close observation for
bronchospasm in the client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or
asthma?
A. Verapamil (Isoptin)
B. Amrinone (Inocor)
C. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
D. Propranolol (Inderal)
Correct Answer: D
Section:
Questions Set A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
,(A) Verapamil has the respiratory side effect of nasal or chest congestion,
dyspnea, shortness of breath (SOB), and wheezing. (B) Amrinone has the
effect of increased contractility and dilation of the vascular smooth muscle. It
has no noted respiratory side effects. (C) Epinephrine has the effect of
bronchodilation through β stimulation. (D) Propranolol, esmolol, and labetalol
are all β- blocking agents, which can increase airway resistance and cause
bronchospasms.
QUESTION 4
The following medications were noted on review of the client’s home
medication profile. Which of the medications would most likely potentiate or
elevate serum digoxin levels?
A. KCl
B. Thyroid agents
C. Quinidine
D. Theophylline
Correct Answer:
C Section:
Questions Set A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Hypokalemia can cause digoxin toxicity. Administration of KCl would
prevent this. (B) Thyroid agents decrease digoxin levels. (C) Quinidine
increases digoxin levels dramatically. (D) Theophylline is not noted to have
an effect on digoxin levels.
QUESTION 5
In the client with a diagnosis of coronary artery disease, the nurse would
anticipate the complication of bradycardia with occlusion of which coronary
artery?
A. Right coronary artery
B. Left main coronary artery
C. Circumflex coronary artery
D. Left anterior descending coronary artery
Correct Answer:
A Section:
, Questions Set A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Sinus bradycardia and atrioventricular (AV) heart block are usually a
result of right coronary artery occlusion. The right coronary artery perfuses
the sinoatrial and AV nodes in mostindividuals. (B) Occlusion of the left
main coronary artery causes bundle branch blocks and premature
ventricular contractions. (C) Occlusion of the circumflex artery does not
cause bradycardia. (D) Sinus tachycardia occurs primarily with left anterior
descending coronary artery occlusion because this form of occlusion
impairs left ventricular function.
QUESTION 6
When inspecting a cardiovascular client, the nurse notes that he needs to
sit upright to breathe. This behavior is most indicative of:
A. Pericarditis
B. Anxiety
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Angina
Correct Answer:
C Section:
Questions Set A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Pericarditis can cause dyspnea but primarily causes chest pain. (B)
Anxiety can cause dyspnea resulting in SOB, yet it is not typically influenced
by degree of head elevation. (C) The inability to oxygenate well without
being upright is most indicative of congestive heart failure, due to alveolar
drowning. (D) Angina causes primarily chest pain; any SOB associated with
angina is not influenced by body position.
QUESTION 7
When a client questions the nurse as to the purpose of exercise
electrocardiography (ECG) in the diagnosis of cardiovascular disorders, the
nurse’s response should be based on the fact that:
A. The test provides a baseline for further tests
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