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1. The SSRI class of antidepressants have many “black box” warnings on their label. Among these warnings is which of the following: a. Likely to affect renal function b. May cause harmful side effects such as suicidal thoughts c. Age-specific prescriptio$16.99
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1. The SSRI class of antidepressants have many “black box” warnings on their label. Among these warnings is which of the following: a. Likely to affect renal function b. May cause harmful side effects such as suicidal thoughts c. Age-specific prescriptio
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S 3P questionnaire
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S 3P Questionnaire
1. The SSRI class of antidepressants have many “black box” warnings on their label. Among these warnings is which
of the following:
a. Likely to affect renal function
b. May cause harmful side effects such as suicidal thoughts
c. Age-specific prescription requirements excluding adolescents...
berkley’s 3p questionnaire green is answer i chose
bold is the correct answer 202324
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Berkley’s 3P questionnaire- Green is answer I chose, BOLD Is the correct answer
1. The SSRI class of antidepressants have many “black box” warnings on their label. Among these warnings is which
of the following:
a. Likely to affect renal function
b. May cause harmful side effects such as suicidal thoughts
c. Age-specific prescription requirements excluding adolescents or children
d. Toxic when taken with certain foods
2. Adenosine triphosphate levels decrease in ischemia. What effect does this have on cells?
a. Cells shrink because of an influx of calcium
b. Cells shrink because of the influx of potassium
c. Cells swell because of the influx of sodium
d. Cells swell because of the influx of nitric oxide.
3. A patient is taking furosemide (Lasix) for stage three heart failure. Along with Lisinopril, an aspirin a day,
warfarin, atorvastatin, and metoprolol, which other medication should this patient be prescribed?
a. Tenecteplase
b. Amitriptyline
c. Phytonadione
d. Potassium Chloride
4. In infectious mononucleosis (IM), the Monospot test detects which of the following antibodies within the first
few weeks after infection?
a. Immunoglobulin E (IgE)
b. Immunoglobulin M (IgM)- IgM detected 2 weeks – 6 months after exposure. IgG in recovers, IgE is an
allergic rxn, IgA is protective barrier from outside substances.
c. Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
d. Immunoglobulin A (IgA)
5. You are advising a patient who has been diagnosed with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease. Which of
the following accurately describes the condition?
a. “this disease may cause you to lose function of one of your kidneys, but we will monitor it as it
progresses”
b. “this disease is a cause of kidney cancer and is treatable with chemotherapy.”
c. “you got this disease from having chronic problems with kidney stones. Now you will need dialysis.”
d. “You will need a kidney transplant to treat this disease. You will be placed on the transplant list.”-
effective way to treat PCKD, also need to treat symptoms- BP meds & diuretics, loss of function of both
kidneys, not just 1, Not associated with kidney CA, PCKD may cause development of kidney stones,
dialysis may help if end stage disease, but is inherited and not from having kidney stones.
6. The smoky, brown-colored urine in acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is due to:
a. The presence of red blood cells- inflammation causes RBC to leak into glomeruli and low pH turns it
brown. Urobilinogen from breakdown of bilirubin in intestines and indicates liver dz, the RBC will pass
the the collecting tubules not slough. Protein is lost as well, but doesn’t cause to be brown color.
b. The presence of urobilinogen
c. The slough from the collecting tubules
d. The protein that is in the urine
7. A neonate is born with fetal alcohol syndrome. Which of the following abnormalities may be observed?
, a. Alveolar collapse and flail chest
b. Cognitive impairment and facial anomalies
c. Incompetent semilunar valves (ex aortic and pulmonic).
d. Esophageal stricture and short gut syndrome.
8. Which of the following clinical symptoms is most significant for a male patient taking propranolol (Inderal) for
hypertension?
a. Blood pressure of 140/90
b. Glomerular filtration rate of 80 ml/mm
c. Expiratory wheezes
d. Hemoglobin A1c of 6%
9. Benjamin, age 22, comes into your practice complaining of extreme pain in his lower abdomen. You use a
stethoscope to listen to his bowel sounds and hear nothing. Which of the following is not a cause of hypoactive
bowel sounds?
a. Peritonitis
b. Constipation
c. Paralytic ileus
d. Norovirus
10. To enhance absorption of topical steroids, the advanced practice nurse may recommend which of the following
treatments?
a. Occlusive dressing
b. Applying the drug to a smaller surface area
c. A cool compress
d. Rinsing the site after application
11. Which of the following beta blockers has intrinsic sympathomimetic activity and should not be used in a patient
who has had a myocardial infarction?
a. Metoprolol
b. Pindolol
c. Timolol
d. Labetalol
12. The Mini Mental Status Exam may be used to detect all of the following except:
a. Schizophrenia
b. Intoxication
c. Delirium
d. Dementia
13. Which of the following is a verbal response that focuses on the health care provider’s perspective, rather than
the patients?
a. Reflection
b. Facilitation
c. Empathy
d. Confrontation- giving honest feedback or pointing out demeanor shifts focus to provider. Use sparingly,
give Pt ample amount of time to talk. Reflection, facilitation, empathy all methods encourage express
concerns and control where conversation goes.
, 14. Jackie is brought into the clinic by her worried mother, who noticed skin lesions on her shoulders that weren’t
there the week prior. She describes the skin lesions as dark brown and flat and says the skin is raised less than 1
cm in length. What type of skin lesion is on Jackie’s shoulders:
a. Papules
b. Macules- color change <1 cm, freckles. Papules= solid, elevated, thickened epidermis. Vesicles= elevated
fluid filled areas, patches= macules > 1 cm
c. Vesicles
d. Patches
15. When screening a patient for potential suicide ideation, all of the flowing are warning signs except:
a. Feelings of hopelessness
b. Increased alcohol use
c. Anorexia
d. Increased psychomotor energy
16. In which scenario would a combination of diclofenac and misoprostol be a good choice for the patient?
a. The 6-year old with a fever likely due to a viral syndrome
b. The 42-year old male with bursitis
c. The 68-year old female with rheumatoid arthritis
d. The 2-year old female with dysmenorrhea
17. The treatment of choice for pharyngeal gonococcal infections is:
a. Metronidazole, 500 mg taken orally twice per day for seven days
b. Benzathine penicillin G, 2.4 million units administered intramuscularly once
c. Moxifloxacin, 400 mg taken orally once daily for seven days
d. Ceftriaxone, 250 mg administered intramuscularly once; 1 gm of azithromycin taken orally once
18. Ken comes into the clinic stating that he has lost the ability to drive because every time he gets in the car,
everything around him starts spinning. When asked in the symptom occur during any other time, he states it
does on occasion. What is Ken most likely experiencing?
a. Dizziness
b. Syncope
c. Tinnitus
d. Vertigo
19. Which of the following is a true statement regarding migraines?
a. These headaches typically present with an aura in most patients
b. Migraines are typically bilateral, and if caught early, respond well to ice and mild analgesics.
c. Premenopausal females are the largest group of migraine sufferers.- menstruation is one of leading
causes migraine triggers. Estrogen withdrawl with menses can be a trigger. Aura in only 20-25%,
Unilateral, not bilateral, macrophages do not cause, are from triggers of stress, diet, sleeping patterns.
d. Migraines occur when macrophages attack myelin sheaths in the CNS.
20. Of the psychiatric syndromes below, which is correctly matched to its first-line drug of choice as dictated by the
Food and Drug Administration?
a. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder: Fluvoxamine
b. Social anxiety disorder: phenelzine
c. Panic disorder: Alprazolam
d. Post-traumatic stress disorder: trazodone
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