CCI RCIS Review Exam 2023

1. When intervening in the mid/distal right leg from a radial approach, which is the best wire choice? - Answer- .035 x 260 2. Which of the following BEST describes a balloon's ability to yield to changes in pressure? - Answer- Compliance 3. What is the PRIMARY therapeutic reason for using rotational atherectomy as an adjunctive therapy for PCI? - Answer- To remove calcific atherosclerotic plaque 4. A Forgarty balloon is commonly used ______ - Answer- for removing clot from vein/artery 5. Select the methods used to treat flow limiting dissections - Answer- stent, covered stent, angioplasty 6. When using a rotational atherectomy device in the RCA, what else should you consider using? - Answer- Temporary pacing, catheter with side holes, (larger bur or vasodilators) 8. What information is required prior to prepping the patient for the procedure? - Answer- patient identifiers, allergies, NPO status, advanced directives 9. Which of the following inotropic agents predominately stimulates beta 1 receptors? - Answer- Dopamine 10. What is the desired hemodynamic effect of an intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation? - Answer- Increased coronary bloodflow 11. What view exposes an operator standing on the patient's right side to the highest dose of radiation? - Answer- LAO Cranial 12. Which actions should be completed when prepping the patient for a transradial cardiac catheterization? - Answer- Allan's test, pre-sedation, local anesthetic, ultrasound, draping 13. Cardiac index is calculated by dividing cardiac output in liters per minute by the patient's - Answer- BSA 14. The patient has a pulse but is in respiratory arrest. You must give 1 breath every - Answer- 5-6 seconds. 15. Why is rapid ventricular pacing used for an aortic balloon valvuloplasty procedure? - Answer- To slow how much blood is going through aorta 16. Immediate ED general treatment should include - Answer- MONA 17. The term "standard precautions" refers to - Answer- use of PPE and hand hygiene 18. Which atherectomy catheters shave and sand away plaque? - Answer- orbital, directional 19. What type of catheter is used for a thrombectomy? - Answer- Extraction 20. One advantage of using a percutaneous left ventricular assist device is that they - Answer- provide perfusion regardless of patient's intrinsic rate 21. Given the following hemodynamic data for a patient at rest, what is the mean arterial pressure? Systolic pressure 140mmhg, Diastolic pressure 80mmhg - Answer- (80 x 2) + (140 x 1) / 3 = 100mmHg 22. A "Waterhammer Pulse" is caused what valvular disease? - Answer- Aortic Regurgitation 23. When transferring a patient to the recovery area or back to their room, what should be the action for the person who achieved hemostasis of the procedure site? - Answer- To ensure hemostasis has been maintained after transfer 24. In a standard 12 lead ECG, the anterior wall is represented in leads - Answer- V3 and V4 25. What imaging modality is used to confirm proper stent apposition? - Answer- IVUS 26. When delivering radiation, photons are emitted from the - Answer- Cathode 27. In determining cardiac output via the thermal dilution method, saline is injected into the - Answer- proximal port of the PA catheter. 28. The device that converts x-ray into visible light is the - Answer- Image Intensifier 29. Which of the following is responsible for producing the S2 heart sound? - Answer- Closure of the semilunar valves 30. Which of the following represents the GREATEST risk during left ventriculography? - Answer- Embolism 31. What is an absolute contraindication for the use of intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation? - Answer- Dissection/Aneurysm of Aorta, moderate/severe AI, previous AO stenting 32. Which medications are used to pre-treat a patient with a history of contrast allergies? - Answer- Diphenhydramine, Famotidine, solumedrol 33. What is a complication associated with mechanical cardiac valves? - Answer- Thrombus formation 34. Which of the listed signs and symptoms may indicate a vasovagal response? - Answer- Slowed heart rate, lower blood pressure, nausea 35. Which of the following can be used to assure good stent apposition during PCI? - Answer- IVUS 36. What is the TIMI grade of a vessel that has complete perfusion? - Answer- 3 37. What are the possible vascular access sites for a left femoral artery intervention? - Answer- LT/RT Radial, RT Femoral, LT/RT Popliteal 38. Which of the following pacing methods requires the use of external pacing pads? - Answer- Transcutaneous pacing 39. Which of the following is associated with elevated pulse pressure? - Answer- Regurgitation 40. Which vascular closure device has a suture that is self-tightening? - Answer- Angio-Seal 41. What type of angina usually occurs with activity and subsides with rest? - Answer- stable 42. While inflating a non-compliant balloon a rapid loss of balloon pressure occurs. Which of the following should be done FIRST? - Answer- Aspirate coronary before removing balloon 43. What vascular access sites can MOST COMMONLY be used to perform a right ventricular biopsy? - Answer- Right IJ, Right Subclavian, Right brachial 44. What BEST describes the threshold for a temporary pacemaker? - Answer- Minimum output that captures 45. What is advantage to using a filter versus a balloon occlusion distal protection device? - Answer- Allows continued flow whereas balloon occlusion does not 46. A 1.66 mm diameter sheath is equivalent to what French size? - Answer- 5Fr 47. Equalization of aortic and arterial pressures is associated with which procedural device? - Answer- CFR 48. Which of the following should be considered for radial artery spasm during sheath removal? - Answer- Nitroglycerin 200mcg IA with analgesic meds 49. Which of the following conditions would invalidate FICK cardiac output results? - Answer- ASD 50. The cephalic vein is located? - Answer- AC portion outside arm 51. Which of the following are Typical findings in patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? - Answer- Decreased LV compliance, Normal systolic function 52. Prior to deploying a vascular closer device in the femoral artery, which angiographic view should be used to visualize the femoral artery bifurcation? - Answer- Anterior/Posterior 53. What type of imaging is MOST COMMONLY used during PFO closures? - Answer- ICE 54. Which of the following temporary pacemaker adjustments would change the unit from the demand mode to the asynchronous mode? - Answer- Decreasing sensitivity 55. A ventricular gallop is associated with which heart sound? - Answer- S3 56. Activated clotting time is used to assess the effects of which medication? - Answer- HEPARIN 57. What lab test is used to validate the effects if protamine sulfate? - Answer- ACT 58. The reverse _______ test is used to evaluate radial artery patency following radial artery sheath removal and placement of compression device. - Answer- REVERSE ALLENS 59. Which of the following vessel diameters would have the highest restenosis rate? 3.5, 4.5, 2.5 - Answer- 2.5 60. _______ is used to reduce the cavitation effect and expanding gas bubbles inside the artery during laser atherectomy procedures. - Answer- SALINE 61. Which of the following types of devices are used to macerate/breakdown a blood clot? - Answer- ANGIOJET, THROMBOLITIC INFUSION 62. Which of the following is a PRIMARY ind