NURS 4183 HESI Practice Questions and Answers
100%correct/verified with Explanations new
update 2023
The nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with diabetes
mellitus about the subcutaneous administration of regular and
NPH insulin. Which statement indicates that the client needs
further instruction?
A."I should balance my daily exercise with my dietary intake and
insulin dosages."
B."When I give myself an injection, I should aspirate to
make sure that I am not in a blood vessel."
C. "I should inject my insulin into a different site to reduce the
development of scar tissue."
D. "I should remove the dose of clear insulin first and then
the dose of cloudy insulin from the vials."
Rationale:
Aspiration is not necessary when giving insulin because it could
increase tissue trauma and affect the absorption rate. Option C
helps minimize tissue atrophy, which can affect the absorption
of the insulin. Options A and D are correct procedures. The
client should balance an active physical lifestyle with diet,
insulin, and blood glucose monitoring to ensure tight serum
glucose level control. When mixing insulins in the same
syringe, the clear (Regular) insulin is withdrawn first to avoid
contamination of the clear vial with cloudy NPH insulin, which
will alter the absorption rate of the remaining Regular insulin.
NURS 4183 HESI Practice Questions and Answers
100%correct/verified with Explanations new
update 2023
,NURS 4183 HESI Practice Questions and Answers
100%correct/verified with Explanations new
update 2023
Which assessment finding for a client with peritoneal
dialysis requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
A.The color of the dialysate outflow is opaque yellow.
B.The dialysate outflow is greater than the inflow.
C.The inflow dialysate feels warm to the touch.
D.The inflow dialysate contains potassium chloride.
Rationale:
Opaque or cloudy dialysate outflow is an early sign of
peritonitis. The nurse should obtain a specimen for culture,
assess the client, and notify the health care provider. Options
B and C are desired. Option D is commonly done to prevent
hypokalemia.
A client with small cell carcinoma of the lung has also
developed syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
(SIADH). Which outcome finding is the priority for this client?
A.Reduced peripheral edema
B.Urinary output of at least 70 mL/hr
C.Decrease in urine osmolarity
D.Serum sodium level of
137 mEq/L Rationale:
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
NURS 4183 HESI Practice Questions and Answers
100%correct/verified with Explanations new
update 2023
,NURS 4183 HESI Practice Questions and Answers
100%correct/verified with Explanations new
update 2023
results from an abnormal production or sustained secretion of
antidiuretic hormone, causing fluid retention, hyponatremia,
and central nervous system (CNS) fluid shifts. The client's
normalization of the serum sodium level (normal is 135 to 145
mEq/L) is the most important outcome because sudden and
severe hyponatremia caused by fluid overload can result in
heart failure. Fluid retention of SIADH contributes to daily
weight gain, which can predispose to peripheral edema, but the
higher priority outcome is the effect on serum electrolyte
levels. Although options B and C are findings associated with
resolving SIADH, they do not have the priority of option D.
A client with glomerulonephritis is scheduled for a creatinine
clearance test to determine the need for dialysis. Which
information should the nurse provide the client prior to the
test?
A.Failure to collect all urine specimens during the
period of the study will invalidate the test.
B.Blood is collected to measure the amount of creatinine
and determine the glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
C.Dialysis is started when the GFR is lower than 5 mL/min.
D.Discard the first voiding, and record the time and amount of
urine of each voiding for 24 hours.
NURS 4183 HESI Practice Questions and Answers
100%correct/verified with Explanations new
update 2023
, NURS 4183 HESI Practice Questions and Answers
100%correct/verified with Explanations new
update 2023
Rationale:
Glomerulonephritis damages the renal glomeruli and affects the
kidney's ability to clear serum creatinine into the urine.
Creatinine clearance is a 24-hour urine specimen test, so all
urine should be collected during the period of the study or the
results will be inaccurate. As renal function decreases, the
creatinine level will decrease in the urine. Dialysis is usually
started when the GFR is 12 mL/min. There is no need to
record the frequency and amount of each voiding during the
time span of urine collection.
The health care provider prescribes 1000 mL of Ringer's
lactate solution with 30 units of oxytocin (Pitocin) to infuse
over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-lb infant
by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20
gtt/mL administration set. The nurse should set the flow rate at
how many gtt/min?
Rationale:
Use the following calculation:
1000 mL of LR with oxytocin 30 mg/4 hours = 250 ml/hr x 20
gtt/60 = 83.3 or 83 ml/hr
1000 mL/4 = 250 mL/hr 250 x 20 gtt = 5,000 5000/60 = 83.3 or 83 mL/hr
Which assessment is most important for the nurse to
NURS 4183 HESI Practice Questions and Answers
100%correct/verified with Explanations new
update 2023
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