HESI Pharmacology Evolve Questions and Answers
(Verified Answers)
1. A 19-year-old male client who has sustained a severe head injury is in-
tubated and placed on assisted mechanical ventilation. To facilitate optimal
ventilation and prevent the client from "fighting" the ventilator, the health
care provider administers pancuronium bromide IV, with adjunctive opioid
analgesia. What medication should be immediately accessible for a
potential complication with this drug?
A. Dantrolene sodium
B. Neostigmine bromide
C. Succinylcholine bromide
D. Epinephrine: B. Neostigmine bromide
Neostigmine bromide and atropine sulfate, both anticholinergic drugs,
reverse the respiratory muscle paralysis caused by pancuronium
bromide. Options A, C, and D are not antagonists to pancuronium
bromide and would not be helpful in reversing the effects of the drug
compared with the use of anticholinergics.
,2. A client with viral influenza is receiving vitamin C, 1000 mg PO daily,
and acetaminophen elixir, 650 mg PO every 4 hours PRN. The nurse calls
the health care provider to report that the client has developed diarrhea.
Which change in prescriptions should the nurse anticipate?
A. Change the acetaminophen to ibuprofen.
B. Change the elixir to an injectable route.
C. Decrease the dose of vitamin C.
D. Begin treatment with an antibiotic.: C. Decrease the dose of vitamin C.
3. When providing nursing care for a client receiving pyridostigmine
bromide for myasthenia gravis, which nursing intervention has the highest
priority?
A. Monitor the client frequently for urinary retention.
B. Assess respiratory status and breath sounds often.
C. Monitor blood pressure each shift to screen for hypertension.
D. Administer most medications after meals to decrease
gastrointestinal irritation.: B. Assess respiratory status and breath
sounds often.
4. A client with a dislocated shoulder is being prepared for a closed
manual reduction using conscious sedation. Which medication should the
nurse explain as a sedative used during the procedure?
,A.Inhaled nitrous oxide
,B.Midazolam IV
C.Ketamine IM
D.Fentanyl and droperidol IM: B. Midazolam IV
5. A client is being discharged with a prescription for sulfasalazine to
treat ulcerative colitis. Which instruction should the nurse provide to this
client prior to discharge?
A. Maintain good oral hygiene.
B. Take the medication 30 minutes before a meal.
C. Discontinue use of the drug gradually.
D. Drink at least eight glasses of fluid a day.: D. Drink at least eight
glasses of fluid a day.
6. The health care provider prescribes carbamazepine for a child whose
tonic-clonic seizures have been poorly controlled. The nurse informs the
mother that the child must have blood tests every week. The mother asks
why so many blood tests are necessary. Which complication is assessed
through frequent laboratory testing that the nurse should explain to this
mother?
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Ototoxicity
C. Myelosuppression
D.Hepatotoxicity: C.
,Myelosuppression
Myelosuppression is the highest priority complication that can
potentially affect clients managed with carbamazepine therapy. The
client requires close monitoring for this condition by weekly laboratory
testing. Hepatic function may be altered, but this complication does
not have as great a potential for occurrence as option C. Options A and
B are not typical complications of carbamazepine therapy.
7. When developing a written nursing care plan for a client receiving
chemotherapy for treatment of cancer, the nurse writes, "Assess each
void- ing for hematuria." The administration of which type of
chemotherapeutic agent would prompt the nurse to add this intervention?
A. Vincristine
B. Bleomycin sulfate
C. Chlorambucil
D. Cyclophosphamide: D. Cyclophosphamide
, Hemorrhagic cystitis is the characteristic adverse reaction of
cyclophosphamide. Administration of options A, B, and C does not
typically cause hemorrhagic cystitis.
8. A client is receiving oral griseofulvin for a persistent tinea corporis
infec- tion. Which response by the client indicates an accurate
understanding of the drug teaching conducted by the nurse?
A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn."
B. "This is the worse bacterial infection I've ever had."
C. "I will need to take the medication for 7 days."
D. "My urine will probably turn brown due to this drug.": A. "I'll wear
sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn."
Photosensitivity is a side effect of griseofulvin, so clients should be
cautioned to wear protective sunscreen during sun exposure.
Options B, C, and D are not accurate statements about side effects
of this medication.
9. A 6-year-old child is admitted to the emergency department with status
epilepticus. His parents report that his seizure disorder has been managed
with phenytoin, 50 mg PO bid, for the past year. Which drug should the
nurse plan to administer in the emergency department?
A. Phenytoin
(Verified Answers)
1. A 19-year-old male client who has sustained a severe head injury is in-
tubated and placed on assisted mechanical ventilation. To facilitate optimal
ventilation and prevent the client from "fighting" the ventilator, the health
care provider administers pancuronium bromide IV, with adjunctive opioid
analgesia. What medication should be immediately accessible for a
potential complication with this drug?
A. Dantrolene sodium
B. Neostigmine bromide
C. Succinylcholine bromide
D. Epinephrine: B. Neostigmine bromide
Neostigmine bromide and atropine sulfate, both anticholinergic drugs,
reverse the respiratory muscle paralysis caused by pancuronium
bromide. Options A, C, and D are not antagonists to pancuronium
bromide and would not be helpful in reversing the effects of the drug
compared with the use of anticholinergics.
,2. A client with viral influenza is receiving vitamin C, 1000 mg PO daily,
and acetaminophen elixir, 650 mg PO every 4 hours PRN. The nurse calls
the health care provider to report that the client has developed diarrhea.
Which change in prescriptions should the nurse anticipate?
A. Change the acetaminophen to ibuprofen.
B. Change the elixir to an injectable route.
C. Decrease the dose of vitamin C.
D. Begin treatment with an antibiotic.: C. Decrease the dose of vitamin C.
3. When providing nursing care for a client receiving pyridostigmine
bromide for myasthenia gravis, which nursing intervention has the highest
priority?
A. Monitor the client frequently for urinary retention.
B. Assess respiratory status and breath sounds often.
C. Monitor blood pressure each shift to screen for hypertension.
D. Administer most medications after meals to decrease
gastrointestinal irritation.: B. Assess respiratory status and breath
sounds often.
4. A client with a dislocated shoulder is being prepared for a closed
manual reduction using conscious sedation. Which medication should the
nurse explain as a sedative used during the procedure?
,A.Inhaled nitrous oxide
,B.Midazolam IV
C.Ketamine IM
D.Fentanyl and droperidol IM: B. Midazolam IV
5. A client is being discharged with a prescription for sulfasalazine to
treat ulcerative colitis. Which instruction should the nurse provide to this
client prior to discharge?
A. Maintain good oral hygiene.
B. Take the medication 30 minutes before a meal.
C. Discontinue use of the drug gradually.
D. Drink at least eight glasses of fluid a day.: D. Drink at least eight
glasses of fluid a day.
6. The health care provider prescribes carbamazepine for a child whose
tonic-clonic seizures have been poorly controlled. The nurse informs the
mother that the child must have blood tests every week. The mother asks
why so many blood tests are necessary. Which complication is assessed
through frequent laboratory testing that the nurse should explain to this
mother?
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Ototoxicity
C. Myelosuppression
D.Hepatotoxicity: C.
,Myelosuppression
Myelosuppression is the highest priority complication that can
potentially affect clients managed with carbamazepine therapy. The
client requires close monitoring for this condition by weekly laboratory
testing. Hepatic function may be altered, but this complication does
not have as great a potential for occurrence as option C. Options A and
B are not typical complications of carbamazepine therapy.
7. When developing a written nursing care plan for a client receiving
chemotherapy for treatment of cancer, the nurse writes, "Assess each
void- ing for hematuria." The administration of which type of
chemotherapeutic agent would prompt the nurse to add this intervention?
A. Vincristine
B. Bleomycin sulfate
C. Chlorambucil
D. Cyclophosphamide: D. Cyclophosphamide
, Hemorrhagic cystitis is the characteristic adverse reaction of
cyclophosphamide. Administration of options A, B, and C does not
typically cause hemorrhagic cystitis.
8. A client is receiving oral griseofulvin for a persistent tinea corporis
infec- tion. Which response by the client indicates an accurate
understanding of the drug teaching conducted by the nurse?
A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn."
B. "This is the worse bacterial infection I've ever had."
C. "I will need to take the medication for 7 days."
D. "My urine will probably turn brown due to this drug.": A. "I'll wear
sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn."
Photosensitivity is a side effect of griseofulvin, so clients should be
cautioned to wear protective sunscreen during sun exposure.
Options B, C, and D are not accurate statements about side effects
of this medication.
9. A 6-year-old child is admitted to the emergency department with status
epilepticus. His parents report that his seizure disorder has been managed
with phenytoin, 50 mg PO bid, for the past year. Which drug should the
nurse plan to administer in the emergency department?
A. Phenytoin
