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ANCC 25 Practice Questions fully solved.
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  • Course
  • ANCC PMHNP
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  • Oxford University (OX)

A 14-year-old patient has nonspecific complaints about pain in his or her legs. The physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory results are within normal limits except for a markedly elevated alkaline phosphatase level. The psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner: a) interprets the fin...

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  • September 22, 2023
  • 9
  • 2023/2024
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers

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  • ancc 25
  • ancc 25 practice questions fully solved

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  • Oxford University (OX)
  • Unknown
  • ANCC PMHNP
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ANCC 25 Practice Questions fully solved
A 14-year-old patient has nonspecific complaints about pain in his or her legs. The physical
examination is unremarkable. Laboratory results are within normal limits except for a markedly
elevated alkaline phosphatase level. The psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner:


a) interprets the findings as normally occurring during a rapid adolescent growth spurt.
b) obtains a rheumatoid profile because elevated alkaline phosphatase is a sign of early
rheumatic fever.
c) orders a repeat blood test.
d) suspects that the patient has acute pancreatitis. - answer A. interprets the findings as
normally occurring during a rapid adolescent growth spurt.


Laboratory findings for a patient with an alcohol use disorder indicate increased liver function
values and:


a) a decreased mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and normal triglyceride levels.
b) elevated potassium and chloride levels.
c) increased MCV and elevated triglyceride levels.
d) increased urine and serum creatinine levels. - answer C. increased MCV and elevated
triglyceride levels.


A new patient arrives at the office for treatment for depression. The patient reports taking
simvastatin (Zocor) and lisinopril (Zestril). When selecting an antidepressant, the psychiatric-
mental health nurse practitioner eliminates fluoxetine (Prozac), based on the knowledge that
the combination can lead to increased plasma levels of the statin, resulting in an increased risk
of muscle damage and rhabdomyolysis. The nurse practitioner's reason is that:


a) both medications are CYP450 3A4 inhibitors.
b) both medications are CYP450 3A4 substrates.

, c) one medication is a CYP450 3A4 substrate and one is a CYP450 3A4 inducer.
d) one medication is a CYP450 3A4 substrate and one is a CYP450 3A4 inhibitor. - answer D. one
medication is a CYP450 3A4 substrate and one is a CYP450 3A4 inhibitor.


A 28-year-old patient who is psychotic arrives at the clinic with family members but refuses to
meet if the family members are present. The psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner:


a) allows the family members to stay for the appointment.
b) asks the family members and the patient to leave.
c) asks the family members to leave for the appointment.
d) speaks with the family members after the appointment. - answer C. asks the family members
to leave for the appointment.


The psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner is responsible for initiating quality
improvement at a community mental health clinic. The effective strategy for evaluating the
clinic's services is to:


a) analyze the data from epidemiological studies.
b) conduct a root cause analysis.
c) interview patient families.
d) use a survey to elicit patient satisfaction responses. - answer D. a survey to elicit patient
satisfaction responses.


The psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner evaluates a new adult patient via telemedicine.
The patient has questions about a new medication that he or she recently started. The nurse
practitioner decides to provide psychoeducation and to:


a) e-mail drug information and resources.
b) encourage the patient to seek information on the internet.
c) have a phone conference with a family member.

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