CPNRE PREP questions and answers 100% verified.

CPNRE PREP questions and answers 100% verified. abruptio placentae - correct answsers.-premature separation of the normally implanted placenta What are side effects of epidural block during labour? - correct answsers.-respiratory distress -nausea and vomiting -hypotension -bladder distension -prolonged second stage of labour -pruritis placenta previa - correct answsers.-abnormal placental implantation in the lower uterine segment What happens in the latent phase of the first stage of labour? - correct answsers.-cervix dilation is 1-4 cm -amniotic membranes may be intact -may be bloody show -contractions mild to moderate, q20 mins decreasing to q5 mins, lasting 15-40 secs -mother is social and talkative What happens in the active phase of the first stage of labour? - correct answsers.-cervix dilation is 4-7 cm -effacement of cervix occurs -amniotic membranes may rupture -contractions moderate to firm, 2-5 mins apart, lasting 40-60 secs -mother is less social, perspires, focused on breathing, requests pain relief What happens in the transition phase of the first stage of labour? - correct answsers.-cervix dilated 7-10 cm -cervix fully effaced -amniotic membranes rupture -contractions firm, q2-3 mins, lasting 60-90 secs -mother is irritable, introverted, restless, tremor of legs What happens during second stage of labour? - correct answsers.-expulsion of fetus What happens during third stage of labour? - correct answsers.-umbilical cord is cut -expulsion of placenta -uterus contracts to size of grapefruit -mother is elated, curious about infant, increased physical energy What happens during the fourth stage of labour? - correct answsers.-recovery (1-4 hours after placenta delivery) -uterus remains midline, firmly contracted at or below umbilicus line -lochia rubra saturates perineal pad (no more than one pad per hour) -cramping may occur -mother and infant bonding/breastfeeding signs of placental separation - correct answsers.-lengthening of cord -uterine fundus rises and becomes firm -fresh blood expelled from vagina signs of abruptio placentae - correct answsers.-acute abdominal pain -uterine tenderness -possible dark blood signs of placenta previa - correct answsers.-painless bright red bleeding in second or third trimester If fetus is in breech position, when can external version be performed? - correct answsers.-at or after week 34 How long must a postpartum client lay flat for when given a subarachnoid (spinal) block? - correct answsers.-client must lie flat for 8-12 hours after given spinal block to maintain stability and prevent headache fundal height at 20 weeks gestation - correct answsers.-at umbillicus When can fundus be palpated above the symphasis pubis? - correct answsers.-about 12 weeks gestation When does the fundus reach the xiphoid process? - correct answsers.-about 34 weeks gestation medication given to woman with preeclampsia/eclampsia to prevent seizures - correct answsers.-magnesium sulfate signs of magnesium toxicity - correct answsers.-central nervous system depression (e.g., depressed deep tendon reflexes) fetal HR at term - correct answsers.-120 to 160 bpm foods high in folic acid - correct answsers.-leafy, green veg -whole grains -liver -dried peas -beans four functions of skin - correct answsers.-protection -temperature regulation -sensory processing -vitamin D synthesis radiant heat loss - correct answsers.-transfer of surface heat in the environment -ex) escape of heat from surface of warm skin into cooler air conductive heat loss - correct answsers.-transfer of heat through contact -ex) placing a cool cloth on warm skin convection heat loss - correct answsers.-transfer of heat by means of currents of liquids or gases in which warm air molecules move away from the body -ex) a cool breeze that blows across the body surface how to collect sputum specimens - correct answsers.-collect in the morning, before breakfast -wear gloves -offer mouth care to prevent contamination of organisms from the mouth, but do not use mouthwash -ask client to breathe deeply and cough up 15-30 mL of sputum therapeutic regime for TB - correct answsers.-chest x-rays and/or CT scans -combination of antibiotics (usually for 6-12 months) -follow-up sputum samples q2-4 weeks once meds started -no longer considered infectious once 3 sputum cultures come back negative apply this to prevent irritation after circumcision - correct answsers.-vaseline (petroleum jelly) and gauze signs of infant respiratory distress - correct answsers.-persistent cyanosis (acrocyanosis, or bluish hands and feet, right after birth is normal) -grunting respirations -nostril flaring -sternal or intercostal retractions -respiration rate greater than 60 best time for bathing newborn - correct answsers.-before feedings to prevent regurgitation Erickson stage birth-18 months - correct vs. mistrust Erickson stage 18 months-3 years - correct omy vs. shame and doubt Erickson stage 3-6 years - correct ative vs. guilt Erickson stage 6-12 years - correct try vs. inferiority Erickson stage 12-20 years - correct ity vs. role confusion Erickson stage 20-35 years - correct acy vs. isolation Erickson stage 35-65 years - correct ativity vs. stagnation Erickson stage 65 years-death - correct rity vs. despair pneumonia - correct acute inflammation of the lung caused by microbial organisms types of pneumonia - correct nity, hospital, fungal, aspiration and opportunistic normal manifestations of pneumonia - correct n fever, shaking chills, SOB or orthopnea(difficulty breathing), productive cough of purulent sputum and chest pain physical exam findings of pneumonia - correct ess in percussion, increased fremitis, bronchial breathe sounds and crackles collaborative care for pneumonia - correct : antibiotic of a broad spectrum at first supportive care: O2, analgesics, antipyretics prevention: vaccine dx studies of pneumonia - correct and physical examination, CXR, sputum specimsn, pulse ox or ABGs, CBC and blood culture (if systemic infection suspected) how to prevent pneumonia - correct ent ambulation, vaccination, educate of DB and C, elevate HOB with patients who have feeding tubes, assist clients with aspiration risks nursing management of pneumonia - correct ain airway and oxygenation, therapeutic positioning (good lung down), reinforce spirometer, DB and C, turning q2h and ambulation COPD - correct gas exchange exacerbation of COPD - correct led by: dyspnea, cough, sputum COPD manifestations - correct mittent cough (earliest sign), chest breathing, dyspnea on exertion, SOBOE, bluish-red appearence of skin drug therapy of COPD - correct hodialators (short or long acting) and corticosteroid ** bronchodialator first! psoriasis - correct answsers.a chronic skin disorder that causes rapid skin cell growth meaning that cells pile up on eachother on the skin's surface creating lesions and sores manifestations of psoriasis - correct ns are red, raised and covered with silver scales, if scales are scratched away they will bleed, these patches are dry and itchy. medical management of psoriasis - correct al agents: slows the epidermis without affecting other tissues, causing slough of rapidly growing epidermal cells topical corticosteroids: used for antiimflammatory effects systemic agents (ingested)L pose possibilities of flare ups photo therapy: slowing rapid growth by exposure to UV light cellulitis - correct mmation of the subcut tissue, causing limb swelling. Bacteria enters through breaks in the skin and toxins become released in the tissue manifestations of cellulitis - correct onset: hot tender red and edematous areas with diffuse boarders, chills, malaise and fever nursing intervention of cellulitis - correct ilize and elevate limb above heart, warm moist packs q2-4 hr, breathable shoes with cotton socks are the best malignant skin neoplasms (skin cancer) - correct r non melanoma (basal or squamous circinona) or melanoma ABCDE rule - correct answsers.A: asymmetry B: irregular boarders C: colour (black or brown) D: diameter (greater than 6 mm or pencil eraser) E: evolvement manifestations of melanoma - correct collaborative care of melanoma - correct ns that are suspected to be melanoma should never be shaved-biopsied only excisional * determine the thickness of the mole Stroke - correct attack that is a medical emergency which results in brain cell death from either lack of oxygen (ischemia) or bleeding (hemorrhage) in the brain Nonmodifiable risk factors - correct answsers.Age, Gnder (more in men), ethnicity (more in african amercians), heredity/family hx, low birth weight Modifiable risk factors - correct answsers.HTN (silent killer), diabetes, dyslipidemia, obesity, heart disease, heavy alcohol consumption, BC use, smoking, sleep apnea, or sickle cell disease Ischemia stroke - correct quate blood flow from the brain from partial or complete occlusion of an artery thrombotic ischemic stroke - correct ts from narrowing of the blood vessel, this is normally asymptomatic and happens chronically embolic ischemic stroke - correct emblous lodges in and occuldes a cerebral artery which results in edema and infarction to the area of the brain supplied by the artery. Happens acutely and is symptomatic TIA (Transient ischemic attack) - correct answsers.a short neruological dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord and retinal ischemia, without infarction on the brain. Symptoms normally subside in less than one hour (dizziness, confusion, slurred speech) hemorrhagic stroke - correct ing into the brain tissue (interecerebral) itself or into the subarachnoid space or ventricles intercerebral hemorrhagic manifestations - correct che, neurological deficits (confusion), decreased LOC, HTN *poor prognosis acute nursing management for stroke - correct in within 24-48 hrs, anticoagulants maybe used after stabilization of pt, surgical intervention for stroke (MERCI)= goes in and breaks up the thrombus or embolism Parkinson's disease - correct answsers.Not a dx test but is determined by 4 cardinal signs: Tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia and postural instability Parkinson's - correct answsers.a progressive neurogenerative disease of the CNS. Involves the degeneration of dopamine and symptoms will not occur until 80% of dopamine is gone Drug therapy for parkinsons - correct answsers.Antiparkinson drug which enhances or releases a supply of dopamine (Levodopa) Multiple Sclerosis - correct ic progressive degenerative autoimmune d/o of the CNS which causes dispersed demyelination of axons of the brain and spinal cord Manifestations of MS - correct answsers.Motor: weakness/paralysis of limb, trunk and head Sensory: numbness, tingling, blurred vision, vertigo and tinnitus and decreased hearing Bowel and Bladder: constipation, urinary retention (b/c of flaccidity of bladder) MS drug therapy - correct costeroid (decreases inflammation and edema in site of myelination) immunosuppressive therapy muscle relaxants/antispasmodics antidepressants anti-seizure GERD - correct backwards flow of gastrointestinal contents into the esophagus GERD nursing interventions - correct : restrict spicy and acidic and fatty foods, eat 4-6 meals a day, avoid bedtime snacks, eat slowly and chew thoroughly lifestyle: elevate HOC by 8-12 inches for sleep, stop smoking, monitor/avoid alcohol, weight reduction drug therapy: antacids, histamine blockers Hiatal Hernia - correct on of the stomach enters into the esophagus through an opening or hiatus in diaphragm types of hernias - correct answsers.Sliding (stomach slides into thoracic cavity when supine and into abd cavity when standing upright) Paraesophageal: esophageal junction stays in place but fundus and greater curvature of stomach roll up through diaphragm manifestations of a hiatal hernia - correct burn post meals and lying, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) Gastritis - correct answsers.Acute: rapid onset usually caused by dietary indiscretion (spicy, contaminated) Chronic: prolonged inflammation caused by benign or malignant ulcers of the stomach of H. pylori manifestations of gastritis - correct : abd discomfort, headache, n/v, hiccupping chronic: epigastric discomfort, anorexia, heart burn after eating, intolerance to some foods, sour taste in mouth, n/v peptic ulcer disease - correct on of GI mucosa resulting from digestive action of HCl acid and pepsin types of peptic ulcers - correct : superficial erosion, minimal inflammation, short duration and resolves quickly when identified chronic: muscular wall erosion with formation of fibrous tissue. Long duration. manifestations of peptic ulcers - correct in epigastrium 1-2 hours after meals and 2-5 hours post meals in duodenal ulcers (food aggravates pain)= antacids j tube - correct is inserted into the jejunum g tube - correct is intserted into the stomach nursing care for J/G tubes - correct teaching and prep, tube insertion, confirming placement, securing the tube, monitoring the placement, monitoring the patient, maintaining tube function, oral and nasal care, monitoring/preventing and managing complications and tube removal Atorvastatin Rosuvastatin Simvastatin - correct answsers.Anti-lipidemics Helps Control Atherosclerosis - correct answsers.Anti-Lipidemics Mild GI disturbances, headaches, rashes - correct answsers.Anti-Lipidemics Thiazide Diuretic Loop Diuretic Potassium Sparring Diuretic - correct answsers.Anti-Hypertensives Decreases BP Promotes formation of urine - correct answsers.Anti-Hypertensives