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EMT BASIC PRACTICE EXAM 1 QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS

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  • EMT Course Certification
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  • EMT Course Certification

EMTs should wear high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirators when they are in contact with contact with patients who have which of the following? A. HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) or AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome) B. Tuberculosis (TB) C. Open Wounds D. Hepatitis B - B....

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  • October 13, 2023
  • 38
  • 2023/2024
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers
  • EMT Course Certification
  • EMT Course Certification
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QUALITYGRADES
EMT Basic Practice Exam 1
1. EMTs should wear high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirators when they are in contact with contact with patients who have which of the following? A.HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) or AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome) B.Tuberculosis (TB)
C.Open Wounds
D.Hepatitis B: B. Tuberculosis
HEPA respirators are worn when in contact with patients airborne infections such
as TB. HIV/AIDS and Hepatitis B are both blood-borne pathogens. Contaminants
from open wounds would also be blood-borne.
2. You are called to assist a 60-year-old female who complains of a severe headache. Upon entering the home, you smell a strong odor of natural gas. What is your first reaction? A.Check the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation.
B.Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and assess vital signs. C.Remove the patient from the house to your ambulance.
D.Open all windows and determine the source of the gas leak.: C. Remove the patient from the house to your ambulance.
Your first action should be to remove your crew and the patient from the possible
noxious gas and to notify the gas company of the leak. You may also be required
to alert hazardous material response team. Treatment for the patient will begin
with an ABC assessment and management of any problems you might encounter.
3. The most common electrical rhythm disturbance that results in sudden cardiac arrest.
A.Pulseless Electrical Activity
B.Ventricular Fibrillation
C.Ventricular Tachycardia
D.Asystole: B. Ventricular Fibrillation
Because ventricular fibrillation is the most common cause of sudden cardiac
arrest., it is critical to apply an AED on an unconscious apneic and pulseless
patient as quickly as possible. The other rhythms can also cause a patient to be in
cardiac arrest, but they do not occur as frequently as "V-fib". EMT Basic Practice Exam 1
4. Which of the following is the highest priority patient?
A.57-year-old male with chest pain and systolic blood pressure of 80.
B.40-year-old female with moderate pain from a leg injury.
C.75-year-old male who appears confused but responds to commands.
D.25-year-old female in labor with contractions six minutes apart.: A. 57-
year-old male with chest pain and systolic blood pressure of 80.
The patient with chest pain and systolic blood pressure less than 100 is the
highest priority patient of the four. A leg injury may be life-threatening if the femoral
artery is injured, but most often, a single extremity injury is not a threat to life. The
elderly gentleman may be exhibiting his normal mental status, or he may be
having problems due to an ongoing health problem. You need more information
before you can make that determination, but he is not in any imminent danger
right now. Labor with contractions 6 minutes apart is not considered imminent
delivery. If you have any questions, however, you should continue assessing this
patient as well by asking pertinent questions and checking for crowning.
5. Of the following, which body fluid has the most potential to transmit blood-borne diseases?
A.Nasal Discharge
B.Vomitus
C.Amniotic Fluid
D.Feces: C. Amniotic Fluid
Fluids containing blood have the highest potential for disease transmission.
6. Your patient is an 11-month-old female. How can you determine if she has a decreased mental status and is responsive to verbal stimuli?
A.She will be upset when you take her from her mother's arms.
B.She will be unable to tell you how old she is if you ask her.
C.She will attempt to locate her parents' voices when they speak. D.She will try to pull away from a painful stimulus on her toe.: C. She will attempt to locate her parents' voices when they speak. An infant who is alert to verbal stimuli will still try to locate the parents' voices;
choice A describes an alert infant; choice D describes an infant who is responsive
to painful stimuli; choice B is incorrect because infants of this age are not
developed enough to tell you their age regardless of their mental status. EMT Basic Practice Exam 1
7. What is the best method to assess circulation in an infant? A. Palpate the carotid pulse.
B.Palpate the brachial pulse.
C.Palpate the radial pulse.
D.Observe capillary refill time.: B. Palpate the brachial pulse.
Assess circulation in an infant by palpating the brachial pulse in the upper arm.
The carotid and radial pulses are difficult to locate in infants. Capillary refill time
shows that the patient has impaired circulation, but it is not the first tool to use in
assessing circulation because it is affected by external factors (like the
environment) as well as internal factors like poor perfusion.
8. A 45-year-old male is experiencing chest discomfort. After placing him in his position of comfort, your next action should be? A.Ventilate the patient with a nonrebreather mask at 15 L/min.
B.Ventilate the patient with the bag-valve mask at 15 L/min.
C.Administer oxygen by rebreather mask at 15 L/min. D.Administer oxygen by the nasal cannula at 6 L/min.: C. Administer oxygen by rebreather mask at 15 L/min. There is no information to indicate that the patient requires ventilatory support. Any
patient experiencing chest discomfort should receive the highest possible concentration of oxygen.
9. Which patient should receive a rapid trauma survey to determine hidden injuries? A. Alert 2-year-old child in a car seat who was in a medium speed crash.
B.Alert 20-year-old male who fell 10 feet off of a ladder. C.Alert 65-year-old female who fell in the bathtub and is complaining of wrist pain. D.Alert 11-year-old female who tripped while roller skating and fell down three steps.: A. Alert 2-year-old child in a car seat who was in a medium speed crash.
The rapid trauma survey is used when you are unsure of the presence of hidden
injuries or f the mechanism of injury (MOI) is unclear or severe enough to suggest
the need for a rapid assessment. A 2-year-old child could be severely injured by a
medium speed collision, even if he or she appears alert and was properly
restrained. The other choices do not represent MOIs considered to be high risk for EMT Basic Practice Exam 1
hidden injury. 10. Which of the following is a sign of increased pressure in the
circulatory system? A.Flat neck veins
B.Palpable carotid pulse
C.Distended jugular veins
D.Decreased radial pulse: C. Distended jugular veins
A supine patient may or may not have jugular veins that are prominent enough to palpate. However, even if the neck veins are normally present when an individual is supine, they will not be engorged with blood and overly firm to the touch. This is what is meant by the phrase distended neck veins. Distended neck veins (in any position) are a sign of increased circulatory pressure. The carotid pulse should always be palpable. A decreased radial pulse may indicate hypovolemic shock or an injured extremity.
11. An automated external defibrillator (AED) will shock which if the
following rhythms? A. Sinus Rhythm
B.Asystole C.Ventricular Fibrillation
D.Pulseless Electrical Activity: C. Ventricular Fibrillation
The other rhythms do not benefit from an electrical shock. The purpose of early
defibrillation is to stop a highly chaotic, disorganized electrical rhythm such as
ventricular fibrillation, with the hope that an organized rhythm will begin and
generate a pulse.
12. To assess the motor function in the lower extremities of a responsive patient, you would...
A.Ask the patient to bend his knee
B.Ask the patient to wiggle his toes
C.Carefully move the patient's leg
D.Touch the skin of the patient's foot: B. Ask the patient to wiggle his toes
Assess the motor function by asking the patient to wiggle his toes; moving the leg
or having the patient bend the knee can compromise spinal stability; option D
describes assessment of sensation, not motor function.
13. Which patient can safely receive only a focused physical examination rather than a rapid trauma survey?

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