MSN-FNP Cardiovascular (with Complete Solutions) .

Which of the following beta-blockers is cardio selective? A. Nadolol B. Propanolol C. Atenolol D. Penbutolol correct answers C. Atenolol Explanation: Of the beta blockers listed, atenolol is the most cardioseletive. Cardioselective refers to the ability to affect predominately beta 1 receptors rather than beta 2 receptors. Beta 1 receptors are located mainly in the heart and mediate the sympathetic nervous system's direct effects on the heart. Beta 2 receptors are located predominately in the peripheral vascular system and other organs like the lungs. Although all beta-blockers affect beta receptors, some affect subsets of receptors differently. This has a significan consequences in terms of side effects, as beta-blockers are know to cause extra-cardiac symptoms such as worsened bronchospasms in in asthmatics. Nadolol, propanolol, and penbutolol are non-selective beta-blocker For the initial pharmacological treatment of essential hypertension, which of the following statements is true? A. Diuretics should be the first consideration because of their effectiveness, cost, and low side-effect profile. B. ACE inhibitors speed the progression of moderately increased albuminuria independent of blood pressure control in diabetic patients. C. Alpha-blockers are of particular benefit for the treatment of hypertension in patients with ischemic cardiomyopathy. D. Angiotensin re correct answers A. Diuretics should be the first considered because of their effectiveness, cost, and low side-effect profile. Explanation: There is no evidence that alpha-blockers are of particular benefit for the treatment of hypertension in patients with ischemic cardiomyopathy. The JNC 8 guidelines state that in the general non-black population, including those with diabetes, initial antihypertensive treatment should include a thiazide-type diuretic, calcium channel blocker (CCB), angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI) or angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB). In the general black population, including those with diabetes, initial antihypertensive treatment should include a thiazide type diuretic or CCB. Initial treatment with a thiazide-type diuretic was more effective than CCB or an ACEI. A 30-year-old G1 P0 female at 35 weeks gestation complains of a headache at her routine prenatal visit. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg and urinalysis reveals 1+ protein. Which of the following is the most appropriate step in management of this patient? A. Emergent cesarean section delivery B. Close follow-up of urinary protein and serum creatinine. C. Pitocin