TEST BANK Primary Professional Military EducationBLOCK 2,3,4,5 & 6 (Complete
Questions and Solutions)
Table of Contents
2The Culture of the Navy (Block 2) .................................................................................................................................... 1
3Governance of the Navy (Block 3) ................................................................................................................................ 18
4How the Navy Thinks About War (Block ................................................................................................................. 23
5How the Navy Plans Its Operations ............................................................................................................................ 54
6Technology in the Maritime Domain ............................................................................................................................ 92
2The Culture of the Navy (Block 2)
Enlisted Professionalism
2.1.1Military Formations
Q1: Drill instills discipline and fosters what kind of habits?
A: Precision and automatic response
Q2: Traditionally, awards are handed out in what manner?
A: From most junior to senior
Q3: Which of the following is NOT a reason to conduct a personnel inspection?
A: To use as a tool to punish your Sailors
Q4: As a leader, you will organize your Sailors into formation for which one of the following
occasions?
A: Awards ceremony
Q5: During the Revolutionary War, developed a set of standardized drills for
General George Washington and the Continental Army.
A: Baron von Steuben
Q6: Which event would NOT require the Commanding Officer to order the ship to man therails?
A: Leaving the shipyards after 120 days
Q7: Who is known as the “Drillmaster of the American Revolution”?
A: Baron von Steuben
Q8: What type of command is the first word in “Parade Rest”?
A: Preparatory
Q9: At the beginning of the Revolutionary War, was the leaders' primary toolto
achieve discipline in ranks.
A: fear
Q10: What do you call the extreme right or left of an element?
A: Flank
Q11: As a leader, you can only command Sailors to the position of parade rest, from what
position?
A: Attention
Q12: Sailors are in a , when placed in formation one behind the other?
A: File
Q13: Which of the following events would not require you, as a leader, to hold military quarters?
A: Refueling evolution
Q14: What is the distance between ranks?
A: 40
Q15: A/an can be a single person or a section of a larger formation.
A: Element
Q16: When giving a command, what do you call the rise and fall of the pitch in your voice?
A: Inflection
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, Q17: What order allows room for the inspecting party to step between ranks to conduct an
inspection of the sailors?
A: OPEN RANKS
Q18: As a leader, which situation would cause you to expect a personnel inspection of your
Sailors?
A: Prior to the seasonal uniform change
Q19: Which of the following is NOT one of the principles behind an awards system?
A: Every Sailor should get an award after a command evolution for the sake of equity and
good morale
2.1.2Military Uniforms, Customs, and
Courtesies
1 When in a military vehicle and an officer is seen, who renders the hand salute?
A: The right front passenger seat salutes
Q20: What does Title 10, U.S. Code mandate with respect to uniforms?
A: The requirement to generate, maintain, and update the uniform regulations
Q21: When walking with a senior, what side do you walk on?
A: Left
Q22: Who exits a military vehicle first?
A: The senior leaves first
Q23: How do you recognize the Sergeant Major of the U.S. Army?
A: The hat insignia and rank insignia contain the eagle from the great seal
Q24: What is the U.S. Army’s highest enlisted pay grade?
A: Sergeant Major
Q25: What is meant by “under arms”?
A: When wearing a side arm or carrying a weapon
Q26: At what distance do you begin your salute when approaching an officer?
A: At six paces or closest point of approach
Q27: The Air Force rank associated with its highest enlisted pay grade is that of?
A: Chief Master Sergeant
Q28: What is the definition of “prescribable” items?
A: Uniform items which may be directed or authorized for wear with the basic uniform.
Items may be worn with basic uniforms at the individual’s discretion unless otherwise
directed.
Q29: What Army rank is associated with the E-6 pay grade?
A: Staff Sergeant
Q30: What should you do when the national anthem of a friendly foreign?
A: Salute
Q31: During the navy’s early years, enlisted uniforms were prescribed by ”
A: Individual ship captains
Q32: Which of the following is not a responsibility of senior Non-commissioned officers?
A: Make difficult decisions for junior officers
2.1.3Fleet Response Plan
1 Presence with a purpose” provides what?
A: routine, pulse
Q33: Which report issued a mandate for the U.S. military to transform leading to adoptionof
FRP?
A: 2001 Quadrennial Defense Review
Q34: Who did Admiral Vern Clark task with developing a plan to replace the 18-monthinter-
deployment training cycle (IDTC)?
A: Commander, Fleet Forces Command
Q35: When is a CSG considered surge ready?
A: When they have completed integrated phase training
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, Q36: The Fleet Response Plan places a carrier strike group in these four categories?
A: Maintenance
A: Emergency surge, surge ready surge deploy
A: Emergency surge, surge ready, routine
Q37: The Fleet Response Plan is often referred to as what?
A: Fleet Readiness Plan
Q38: What time frame does the Fleet Response Plan use as its cycle?
A: A 27-month cycle
Q39: At its core, the Fleet Response Plan is?
A: a mission driven, capabilities-based response plan
Q40: The Fleet Response Plan calls for how many carrier strike groups to be deployablewithin 30
days?
A: 6
Q41: When a ship, sub, or squadron is considered routine deployable?
A: After successfully completing all necessary capabilities training including
completion of underway …
Q42: Which Sea Power 21 initiative changed the way the U.S. Navy deploys and trains theFleet?
A: Sea Basing
Q43: What does the 6 + 2 plan provide?
A: 6 CSG available to deploy within 30 days
Q44: Due to the war on terror, Secretary of the Navy England challenged the U.S. Navy todo
what?
A: Maintain its relevance
Q45: Under the 27-month Fleet Response Plan, a carrier strike group is surge ready for howmany
months?
A: 16 Months
Q46: The flexible deployment concept allows units that have attained high readiness toembark on
deployments in support of specific national priorities such as?
A: homeland defense
Q47: When is a CSG considered in emergency surge status?
A: When they have successfully completed their unit level phase training phase
2.1.4Chief Petty Officer History, Duties, and
Responsibilities
Q48: The only article of the CPO uniform described in the 1897 Uniform Regulations wasthe?
A: hat device
Q49: Which regulation established the grade of chief petty officer on 1 April 1893?
A: U.S. Navy Regulation Circular
Number 1 General Order Number 409
Q50: On 23 May, 1978, the CNO approved new roles and responsibilities for a chief pettyofficer.
Which of the following was a defined role?
A: The top technical authority and expert within a rating
Q51: The CNO/MCPON Advisory Panel was established in 1971 to?
A: Represent the enlisted force to Navy leadership on professional and personnel issues
Q52: The Career Compensation Act of 1949 established what significant change?
A: It designated chief petty officers as paygrade E-7 instead of paygrade 1
Q53: What initiative led directly to the recommendation for establishing the billet of Master Chief
Petty Officer of the Navy?
A: The Retention Task Force of 1964
Q54: In the early 1900’s Sailors of all rates were promoted to fill what first?
A: Voids in critical Navy billets, normally in their own command
Q55: During the early 1900’s, chief petty officers could receive a permanent appointmentbased on?
A: Satisfactory performance, as evaluated by the commanding officer
Q56: On 28 April 1967, became the first Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy.
A: GMCM Delbert Black
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, Q57: What is not a responsibility of the Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy?
A: Report to CNP
A: Travel extensively
Q58: On 13 January 1967, GMCM Delbert Black was officially appointed as the first?
A: Senior Enlisted Advisor of the Navy
Q59: The duties and responsibilities of a Master Chief Petty Officer in 1978 were?
A: broadened to include contributing to command-level policy formulation
Q60: The paygrades of Senior Chief and Master Chief Petty Officer were established inwhat
year?
A: 1958
Q61: The Chief Petty Officer Core Competencies were developed to?
A: Strengthen chief petty officer standards
Q62: According to the 1918 Bluejacket’s Manual, two roles of a chief petty officer were
A: Technical expert and example setter
2.1.5Overview of Manpower Management forthe Senior Enlisted Leader
1 TFFMS provide access to current manpower data for?
A: resource sponsors
Q63: Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)?
A: Environment in which a command is expected to operate
Q64: Changes to the AMD can come from what factors?
A: Changes in mission or equipment/systems added or deleted from the platform
Q65: OPNAVINST 1300.15, Navy Military Personnel Assignment Policy, states Navy policy is
to make only permanent change of station (PCS) moves necessary for .
A: national security and/or to ensure equitable treatment of Sailors
Q66: Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)?
A: Environment in which a command is expected to operate
Q67: Manpower management determines manpower authorization priorities based on
available funding and :
A: warfare sponsor requirements
Q68: Where do you find current and future peacetime and mobilization manpowerrequirements
and authorizations?
A: Activity Manning Document (AMD)
Q69: Who prepares the statements detailing Required Operational Capability (ROC)?
A: Mission and warfare sponsors
Q70: OPNAV Instruction 1000.16, Manual of Navy Total Force Manpower Policies and
Procedures, defines manpower management as a?
A: methodical process
Q71: In manpower management, commands are responsible for what?
A: Submitting requests to revise, add, or delete requirements
Q72: For whom does the Personnel Readiness and Support branch (PERS 4013) perform
placement functions?
A: Enlisted
Q73: The methodical process of determining, validating, and using manpower
requirements as a basis for budget decisions defines .
A: manpower management
Q74: The AMD is a single source document that provides?
A: Quantitative and qualitative manpower requirements
Q75: How often is the EDVR published?
A: Monthly
Q76: What is the single authoritative database for MPN manpower authorizations and end
strength?
A: Total Force Manpower Management System (TFFMS)
Q77: Where do you find personnel strength planning, recruiting, training, and personnel
distribution?
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