This mock test PDF is designed to help students prepare for their upcoming [NEET] examination. It contains a comprehensive set of questions that cover various aspects and difficulty levels of the subject matter. The NEET Previous Year Questions PDF is a valuable resource for students preparing for ...
Test Booklet Code
No. :
GAJAHA
M1 This Booklet contains 28 pages.
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Important Instructions :
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the
Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on OFFICE Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options
with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions
in each subject are divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos – 1 to 35,
51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos – 36 to 50, 86 to 100,
136 to 150 and 186 to 200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out
of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start
attempting the question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first
ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses on Answer
Sheet.
5. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet (ORIGINAL and OFFICE
Copy) to the Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test
Booklet with them.
7. The CODE for this Booklet is M1. Make sure that the CODE printed on the Original Copy of
the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this Test Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should
immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
8. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/
Answer Sheet.
9. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
10. Each candidate must show on-demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
11. No candidate, without special permission of the centre Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
12. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator on duty and sign (with time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a candidate has not
signed the Attendance Sheet second time, will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer
Sheet and dealt with as an Unfair Means case.
13. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
14. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct in
the Examination Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per the Rules and Regulations
of this examination.
15. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
16. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the
Attendance Sheet.
Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :
Roll Number : in figures
: in words
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :
Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :
Facsimile signature stamp of
Centre Superintendent :
,M1 2
Section - A (Physics) 4. A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In
which direction will it move ?
1. Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and
R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of
surface charge densities of the spheres (σ1/σ2) is :
R1
(1) R2
R2
(2) R1
(1) towards the left as its potential energy will
increase.
R1
(3) (2) towards the right as its potential energy will
R2 decrease.
(3) towards the left as its potential energy will
R12 decrease.
(4)
R22 (4) towards the right as its potential energy will
increase.
2. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density
5. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is
d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerine
best suited as an objective of an astronomical
becomes constant after some time. If the density
telescope since :
of glycerine is d , then the viscous force acting on (1) a large aperture contributes to the quality
2 and visibility of the images.
the ball will be :
(2) a large area of the objective ensures better
Mg
(1) light gathering power.
2
(3) a large aperture provides a better resolution.
(2) Mg (4) all of the above.
3 6. A screw gauge gives the following readings when
(3) Mg
2 used to measure the diameter of a wire
Main scale reading : 0 mm
(4) 2 Mg
Circular scale reading : 52 divisions
3. An infinitely long straight conductor carries a Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to
current of 5 A as shown. An electron is moving 100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter
with a speed of 105 m/s parallel to the conductor. of the wire from the above data is :
The perpendicular distance between the electron (1) 0.52 cm
and the conductor is 20 cm at an instant.
(2) 0.026 cm
Calculate the magnitude of the force experienced
by the electron at that instant. (3) 0.26 cm
(4) 0.052 cm
7. A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two
fragments each of mass number 120, the binding
energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is
7.6 MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The
total gain in the Binding Energy in the process is :
(1) 4×10−20 N (1) 0.9 MeV
(2) 8π×10−20 N (2) 9.4 MeV
(3) 4π×10−20 N (3) 804 MeV
(4) 216 MeV
(4) 8×10−20 N
, 3 M1
8. A small block slides down on a smooth inclined 12. Column - I gives certain physical terms associated
plane, starting from rest at time t=0. Let Sn be with flow of current through a metallic conductor.
the distance travelled by the block in the interval Column - II gives some mathematical relations
Sn involving electrical quantities. Match
t=n−1 to t=n. Then, the ratio is : Column - I and Column - II with appropriate
Sn+1
relations.
2n−1
(1) Column - I Column - II
2n
m
2n−1 (A) Drift Velocity (P)
(2)
ne2 ρ
2n+1
(B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) nevd
2n+1
(3) eE
2n−1 (C) Relaxation Period (R) τ
m
2n
(4) E
2n−1 (D) Current Density (S)
J
(1) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q)
9. Find the value of the angle of emergence from the
(2) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(Q), (D)-(P)
prism. Refractive index of the glass is 3 .
(3) (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(S), (D)-(Q)
(4) (A)-(R), (B)-(Q), (C)-(S), (D)-(P)
13. The electron concentration in an n-type
semiconductor is the same as hole concentration
in a p-type semiconductor. An external field
(electric) is applied across each of them. Compare
the currents in them.
(1) current in n-type=current in p-type.
(1) 608 (2) current in p-type > current in n-type.
(2) 308 (3) current in n-type > current in p-type.
(3) 458 (4) No current will flow in p-type, current will
only flow in n-type.
(4) 908
14. A radioactive nucleus AZ X undergoes spontaneous
10. A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The
decay in the sequence
time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg
is suspended by it is : A
X → Z −1B → Z −3C → Z − 2 D , where Z is the
Z
(1) 0.0628 s atomic number of element X. The possible decay
particles in the sequence are :
(2) 6.28 s
(1) α, β−, β+
(3) 3.14 s
(2) α, β+, β−
(4) 0.628 s (3) β+, α, β−
(4) β−, α, β+
11. A convex lens ‘A’ of focal length 20 cm and a concave
lens ‘B’ of focal length 5 cm are kept along the 15. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of
same axis with a distance ‘d’ between them. If a 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to
parallel beam of light falling on ‘A’ leaves ‘B’ as a frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How
parallel beam, then the distance ‘d’ in cm will be : much power is generated by the turbine ?
(1) 25 (g=10 m/s2)
(1) 10.2 kW
(2) 15
(2) 8.1 kW
(3) 50
(3) 12.3 kW
(4) 30 (4) 7.0 kW
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