CEN Test Quiz Bank 009 Sample Practice Test Questions and
Answers 2023/2024 APPROVED
"Tearing chest pain" correct answers Aortic dissection. Unequal upper extremity blood pressure readings
(L arm > R arm with difference of 20mmHg systolic)
ST elevation in V1, 2, 3, and 4 correct answers Anterior myocardial infarction
ST elevation leads I, AVL, V5, V6 correct answers Lateral myocardial infarction
Reciprocal changes in leads V1 and V2 with ST elevation correct answers Posterior myocardial infarction
ST elevation in leads II, III, and AVF correct answers Inferior myocardial infarction
Wellen's syndrome correct answers EKG shows a lack of Q wave and significant ST-segment elevation,
but no serum marker abnormalities. Critical, proximal LAD artery stenosis.
Ludwigs's angina correct answers Results from a secondary dental infection, does not affect EKG, can
lead to airway problems. Diffuse swelling of the tissue of the oral cavity and face, extending to the
deeper structure of the neck. Hoarseness, stridor, pain on swallowing, and neck pain.
Afib correct answers Rate control first and then rhythm conversion
Tachydysrhythmia in the pediatric population correct answers Unstability = s/s of poor tissue perfusion
(resp distress or failure)
Nitrates correct answers Preload reducing effects. Not to be used in right ventricular MI (RVMI), as this
might further cause decreased preload and cardiac output.
Pericarditis correct answers Diffuse ST-segment elevation, no reciprocal changes, pt's feeling better when
sitting forward. Fever, chills, dyspnea, chest pain are typical symptoms.
Atrial kick correct answers The enhanced cardiac output that occurs when both of the atria beat
simultaneously. Contributing 20-30% more blood volume to cardiac output.
Digibind correct answers Digoxin antagonists
Pyloric stenosis correct answers Most common cause of intestinal obstruction in infancy. Usually
diagnosed in the first 3-12 weeks of life. "Olive-shaped" mobile hard pylorus on palpation. Severe
vomiting. Poor weight gain, projective vomiting, and constipation. Narrowing of the opening from the
stomach to the intestines, due to enlargement of the muscle surrounding this opening.
IBS correct answers High fiber diet to decrease cramping and bloating
Esophagitis correct answers Small frequent meals
GERD correct answers Small meals and avoidance of alcohol, mint, chocolate, and caffeine
,Cholecystitis correct answers Low-fat diet to prevent gallbladder attack
Epididymitis teaching correct answers Safe sex practice, and limiting the number of sexual partner
Ectopic pregnancy correct answers Should be considered in all women of child-bearing age. Life-
threatening.
Ovarian cyst correct answers Pain to one side of the abd during the menstrual cycle at mid-month, and
pain worsens with movement
Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PHI) correct answers Visual changes, headache, RUQ abd pain,
decreased urination occurred from hypertension and vasospasm.
Le Fort I fracture correct answers A horizontal fracture of the maxilla that causes the hard palate and
alveolar process to become separated from the rest of the maxilla. The Fracture extends into the lower
nasal septum, lateral maxillary sinus and palatine bones.
Le Fort II fracture correct answers A pyramid shaped fracture. It extends from the nasal bone to the
frontal processes of the maxilla, lacrimal bones and inferior orbital floor, and it may extend into the
orbital foramen. Inferiorly, it extends into the anterior maxillary sinus and the pterygoid plates. This type
of fracture also is associated with leakage of CSF into the nasal sinuses.
Le Fort III correct answers combo of I and II plus orbital zygome - bones pretty much just floating on face
(fracture across fronto-zygomatic suture line, entire orbit and nasal bridge - craniofacial disjunction).
Complete separation of the cranial attachments from the facial bones.
Blow-out orbital fracture correct answers Painful or restricted extraocular muscle movements, esp
upward or lateral. Subcutaneous emphysema, infraorbital anesthesia, palpable bony tenderness and
deformity, and enophthalmos.
Laryngeal injuries correct answers Most are caused by blunt force trauma, often involves other serious
injuries. Classic s/s in addition to hoarseness, dysphagia, stridor, and hemoptysis include dyspnea, cough,
and difficulty speaking.
Pneumomediastinum correct answers Free air in the mediastinal space. Should be suspected if an
abnormal crunching sound is heard synchronous with the heartbeat (Hamman's crunch), although this
finding is not always present.
TMJ dislocation teaching correct answers Soft diet to reduce chewing, no stress on the TMJ (no
grinding/clenching), avoid yawning or opening the mouth widely (recurrent dislocations are common)
PPD test correct answers Postive = 10mm induration or greater, 5mm for pt with + HIV
Adolescence (12-18 years old) fears correct answers loss of control and change in body image
Infants (birth to 18 months) and toddlers (18 months to 3 years) fears correct answers Parental
separation
, Toddlers (6 months to 3 years) fears correct answers Stranger anxiety
Preschool children (age 3-5) fears correct answers body mutilation, insides leaking out, the dark, pain,
the unknown, loss of control
amitryptyline (Elavil) correct answers Tricyclic antidepressant, may take up to 3 weeks to achieve pain
control, should be taken nightly at bedtime (drowsiness effects), should not exceed 300mg/day
Rubeola (red measles) correct answers Highly contagious illness affecting the skin, eyes, and upper
respiratory tract. Koplik's spots.
Koplik's spots correct answers Classic presentation of rubeola, appears as bluish-white spots to the
mouth and throat 1-4 days before the rash fully appears all over the body
Rubbella (German measles) correct answers Red rash that starts in the face and spreads to the trunk and
extremities. Classic presentation: swollen lymph nodes at the base and sides of the neck. The rash lasts
only 2-3 days, but the child is still contagious 1 wk prior to the outbreak of the rash.
Roseola infantum correct answers Flat, reddish rash most prominently on the back and trunk. The rash
can last as long as 5-15 days to appear after initial exposure incidence of fever mad irritability. The rash
usually lasts 1-2 days.
Varicella correct answers Red, raised fluid-filled lesion. Most commonly appear on the trunk and face
and then become generalized. Severe itching in most children. Spreading with itching and opening of the
fluid-filled vesicles. Individuals are infectious 48 hours before the rash appears and remain contagious
until all skin lesions have crusted over and no new lesions have formed.
donepezil (Aricept) overdose correct answers Potentially life-threatening cholinergic crisis characterized
by severe nausea, increased salivation, diaphoresis, bradycardia, flushed skin, and hypotension. Can lead
to respiratory depression and cardiopulmonary arrest if the respiratory muscle weakness is severe.
Neurogenic shock correct answers Loss of the sympathetic function below the level of spinal cord injury.
The unopposed vagal (parasympathetic) stimulus causes vasodilation, bradycardia, and hypotension.
phenytion (Dilantin) correct answers Administer slowly over 1-5 min in small increments. Diluted with
normal saline 1ml/50mg of Dilantin. Clear IV line first and then give Dilantin with an in-line filter at
50mg/min (10-15mg/kg for status epilepticus). S/E: hypotension, bradycardia.
Epidural hematoma correct answers Acute collection of blood between the skull and the dura matter. It
is usually due to a laceration in the middle meningeal artery with a rapid collection of blood and
increased intracranial pressure. Characterized by a brief period of unconsciousness, followed by a lucid
period, and then another loss of consciousness.
Diffuse axonal injury correct answers Widespread dysfunction of neurological function without any focal
lesions. It is often caused by a sudden acceleration of deceleration injury to the brain resulting in
shearing forces to the axons. It is often characterized by an immediate loss of consciousness that can last
from days to weeks.
