PATHOLOGY POOLED MCQS FOR GRE/GAT/SUBJECT 2023 WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS
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Course
PATHOLOGY
Institution
PATHOLOGY
Subject (1-650) MCQ’s
Answer Key
1)
Which of the following represents an increase in size of a cell in response to increased demand or hormonal stimulation?
A
A.
Hypertrophy
B.
Hyperplasia
C.
Metaplasia
D.
Anaplasia
2)
Which of the following sequelae of ischemia would be considered ...
POOLED MCQS FOR GRE/GAT/SUBJECT
DISCIPLINE: (PATHOLOGY)
Answer
Subject (1-650) MCQ’s
Key
1) Which of the following represents an increase in size of a cell in response to increased demand or hormonal stimulation? A
A. Hypertrophy B. Hyperplasia
C. Metaplasia D. Anaplasia
2) Which of the following sequelae of ischemia would be considered an irreversible cellular injury? C
A. cellular acidosis B. fatty metamorphosis
C. rupture of lysosomes D. None of these
3) Which of the following would typically result in liquifactive necrosis? A
A. cerebral infarction from middle cerebral artery B. liberation of pancreatic enzymes into peritoneum due to
thrombosis acute pancreatitis
C. myocardial infarction from coronary thrombosis D. None of these
4) Frozen section evaluation of a lymph node biopsy from the neck of an old dog shows granulomatous inflammation with C
large areas of necrosis. Which of the following would be most important to do?
A. cell surface markers for lymphocyte phenotyping B. chromosomal analysis by karyotyping
C. cultures for acid fast bacilli and fungi D. None of these
5) A buffalo with immunodeficiency state presents with weight loss and cough. Chest x-ray shows pulmonary infiltrates. A C
tuberculin skin test shows no reaction. Which of the following interpretations is most correct?
A. he does not now have and never has had tuberculosis B. he does not now have tuberculosis, but may have in the
past
C. he may or may not have tuberculosis D. None of these
6) Each of the following is an example of apoptosis except: C
A. deletion of autoreactive T cells from thymus B. destruction of hepatocytes in chronic hepatitis
C. stroke caused by thrombosis of middle cerebral artery D. None of these
7) Orchiectomy (removal of testes) would be expected to cause which of the following in prostatic epithelium in a old dog: A
A. atrophy B. fatty change
C. Cell swelling D. None of these
8) One year after an intestinal operation the palpation of the incision site shows it to be firmer than surrounding. This is A
predominantly due to:
A. increased density of collagen fibers B. increased density of elastin fibers
C. increased number of regenerating cells D. None of these
9) Amyloid consists of: A
A. extracellular deposits of altered protein in a Beta- B. extracellular accumulations of damaged collagen fibrils
pleated sheet
C. denatured proteins D. None of these
10) Each of the following increases the risk of thrombosis EXCEPT: B
A. endothelial injury B. factor XIII deficiency
C. venous stasis D. None of these
11) Teratomas are best described as: B
A. cancers present at birth B. neoplasms composed of a mix of tissues from 3 germ
layers
C. neoplasms composed of undifferentiated anaplastic cells D. None of these
12) Each of the following may contribute to formation of edema EXCEPT: C
increased intravascular hydrostatic pressure
A. decreased plasma oncotic pressure B.
C. increased serum albumin D. None of these
13) Which of the following would least likely directly lead to anoxic cell injury: C
A. carbon monoxide poisoning B. cyanide poisoning
C. hypoglycemia D. None of these
14) Hyperacute graft rejection most likely involves: C
A. formation of granulomas in the graft B. infiltration of the graft by plasma cells
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, C. preformed antibodies deposited on graft endothelium D. None of these
15) Unconjugated bilirubin is derived principally from: C
A. glucuronyl transferase activity B. toxic liver injury
C. breakdown of senescent red blood cells D. None of these
16) Centrilobular necrosis is associated with C
A. Halothane B. Thorazine
C. Carbon tetrachloride D. None of these
17) In comparison to periportal hepatocytes, centrilobular zones are characterized by: C
A. less smooth endoplasmic reticulum B. larger nuclei
C. poorer oxygenation D. None of these
18) Which one of the following tests would be most effective in ruling out the presence of active hepatocellular disease? A
A. Serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) B. Serum total bilirubin
C. cell surface markers D. None of these
19) Serum concentration is increased when destruction of erythrocytes is increased A
A. Unconjugated bilirubin B. Conjugated bilirubin
C. Both D. None of these
20) Markedly increased concentration responsible for kernicterus in hemolytic disease of the newborn. A
A. Unconjugated bilirubin B. Conjugated bilirubin
C. Both D. None of these
21) Predominantly unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is typical of: A
A. intravascular hemolysis B. carcinoma of common bile ducts
C. carcinoma of gall bladder D. None of these
22) Which one of the following are cardinal features of granulation tissue? C
A. Abundant collagen B. Proliferating macrophages and lymphocytes
C. Proliferating capillaries and fibroblasts D. None of these
23) The main feature of a healing wound is: C
A. Lymphocyte accumulation B. Fibrin deposition
C. Granulation tissue D. None of these
24) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (neutrophils) are by definition part of C
A. granuloma B. Granulation tissue
C. None of these D. All of them
25) A keloid is composed predominantly of: B
A. Granulation tissue B. Dense collagen
C. Loose connective tissue D. None of these
26) Early granulation tissue is BEST characterized by the presence of: C
A. Plasma cells and macrophages B. T lymphocytes and eosinophils
C. Capillary buds and fibroblasts D. None of these
27) In addition to pulmonary stenosis and ventricular septal defect, Tetralogy of Fallot includes: A
A. Dextroposition of aorta and right ventricular B. Dextroposition of aorta and left ventricular hypertrophy
hypertrophy
C. Right ventricular hypertrophy and left atrial dilatation D. None of these
28) Cardiac hypertrophy to occur, one of the following is required: A
Healthy myocardium and adequate nutrition (blood
A. B. Healthy myocardium only
supply)
C. Abundant of blood supply only D. None of these
29) The cardiac reserve is: A
A. ability of the heart to respond to circulatory demands B. ability of the heart to respond to circulatory demands to
over and above those of the animal/ human at rest fulfil the needs of animal / human at rest
C. Is the blood that is present in the peripheral circulatory D. None of these
30) Which of the following is most likely to result in cyanosis? C
A. Anemia B. Polycythemia
C. Left to right cardiac shunt D. None of these
31) Each of the following can produce edema (increased fluid in the interstitial space) EXCEPT C
A. Cardiac failure B. Hepatic failure
C. Arterial occlusion D. None of these
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,32) Which one of the following organs is least likely to have hemorrhagic (red) infarcts: A
A. Heart B. Brain
C. Intestine D. None of these
33) Which of the following plays an important role in edema formation? C
A. Arteriolar dilatation B. Decreased venous flow
C. All of the above D. None of these
34) The most common cause of arterial stenosis is: C
A. Mural thrombosis B. Embolization
C. Atherosclerosis D. None of these
35) Each of the following result in ischemia EXCEPT C
A. Arterial occlusion B. Venous occlusion
C. Cyanosis D. None of these
36) Components of the intravascular space include each of the following EXCEPT C
A. Arteries B. Veins
C. Peritoneal cavity D. None of these
37) A transudate differs from an exudate primarily in its C
A. Interstitial volume B. Presence of vasoactive mediators
C. Protein content D. None of these
38) Each of the following produce edema EXCEPT: C
A. Decreased plasma protein B. Depletion of sodium
C. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure D. None of these
39) Anasarca refers to: C
A. A tumor of lymphatics B. Generalized vasoconstriction
C. Generalized edema D. None of these
40) Clinical manifestations of right heart failure include each of the following EXCEPT: C
A. dependent edema B. Ascites
C. Pulmonary edema D. None of these
41) Edema associated with decreased plasma oncotic pressure may be caused by C
A. Sodium depletion B. Histamine release
C. Liver disease D. None of these
42) Edema is BEST described as: B
A. Purulent reaction B. An increase in interstitial fluid
C. Extravascular hemorrhage D. None of these
43) Left-sided heart failure is characterized by: C
A. Hepatomegaly B. Dyspnea (shortness of breath)
C. Varices D. None of these
44) Heart failure cells, i.e.. macrophages loaded with haemosiderin, are most likely found in C
A. Ascites fluid in congestive heart failure B. Pulmonary alveoli in mitral stenosis
Left ventricular myocardium following infarction and
C. D. None of these
reperfusion
45) Cyanosis caused by mitral insufficiency is typically associated with C
A. Pulmonary vein thrombi B. Pulmonary artery emboli
C. Pulmonary edema D. None of these
46) The edema of nephrotic syndrome is best classified as C
A. Hypovolemic B. Obstructive
C. Oncotic D. None of these
47) Fat emboli are best demonstrated in the lungs by C
A. PCR B. Chromatography
C. Frozen section examination of tissues stained with D. None of these
Sudan red
48) Erythroblastosis fetalis and neonatal hemolytic anemia are caused by a maternal immune response to which fetal blood A
group antigen:
A. Rh B. P
C. MN D. None of these
49) Neoplasms are best characterized as: C
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, A. Malignant tumors B. A proliferation of cells that is characterized by its ability to
invade contiguous structures
C. A cellular proliferation in which growth is for the most D. None of these
part autonomous
50) Which one of the following is a malignant neoplasm? A
A. Seminoma B. Trichoepithelioma
C. Chondroma D. None of these
51) Most common malignant tumor in bitches C
A. Carcinoma of the stomach B. Multiple myeloma
C. venereal tumour D. None of these
52) Which of the following findings is most useful for the staging of a tumor? C
A. Presence of necrosis B. Presence of abnormal mitoses
C. Presence of metastases D. None of these
53) Benign tumors arising from the salivary gland epithelium are called B
A. Transitional cell epitheliomas B. Adenomas
C. Fibromas D. None of these
54) Which of the following finding is most important for the grading of tumors? C
A. Presence of tumor cells in the vascular spaces B. Level of invasion
Microscopic pleomorphism of nuclei and the number of
C. D. None of these
mitoses
55) Chondroma of the larynx is a: A
A. Tumor of cartilage B. Precursor of leiomyosarcoma
C. Precursor of carcinoma D. None of these
56) A benign tumor composed of smooth muscle cells is called: A
A. Leiomyoma B. Rhabdomyoma
C. Angioma D. None of these
57) Many retinoblastomas are marked by the following chromosomal abnormality: C
A. Monosomy B. Translocation
C. Deletion D. None of these
58) Asbestos exposure predisposes to the development of tumors of the: B
A. Uterus B. Pleura
C. Liver D. None of these
59) Eosinophils typically increase in number in response to which of the following? C
A. Gram-positive cocci B. Mycobacteria
C. Parasites D. None of these
60) Epithelioid cells within granulomas are derived from which of the following? B
A. Plasma cells B. Macrophages
C. Lymphocytes D. None of these
61) All of the following are true regarding platelet-activating factor (PAF) EXCEPT: C
A. Induces platelet aggregation B. Stimulates platelet secretion
C. It is a preformed molecule present in various cells D. None of these
62) Biologically active metabolites of arachidonic acid include all of the following EXCEPT: C
A. Leukotrienes (SRS) B. Thyromboxane A2
C. Complement D. None of these
63) Aspirin may reduce inflammatory responses by inhibiting which of the following enzymes? A
A. Cyclooxygenase B. Lipoxygenase
C. Phospholipase C D. None of these
64) Bacterial opsonization is mediated by which one of the following? C
A. Hageman factor B. Prostaglandin I2
C. Immunoglobulin G D. None of these
65) Predominant cell types in typical chronic inflammatory reactions include all of the following EXCEPT: A
A. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes B. Macrophages
C. T helper lymphocytes D. None of these
66) Neutrophilia is most frequently seen in association with which of the following? C
A. Allergic dermatitis B. Fungal esophagitis
C. Bacterial pneumonia D. None of these
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