Why was appeasement the only feasible outcome at this time?
- France and Britain were not ready for war- Germany had mobilised and after the
Rhineland they overestimated the strength of Germany - physically and psychologically
stronger
- Public supported Chamberlain’s appeasement as they did not want another war after
experiencing WW1
- France could not commit itself to war as it was having domestic issues
- France felt they did not have the support of Britain
- Wanted to avoid war and maintain peace in Europe- wanted to achieve this through
negotiation as this failed before the outbreak of WW1
- The French and British public were reluctant to go to war
- Felt that Germany had been treated harshly under the Treaty of Versailles, hence they
were willing to make concessions - earlier demands such as the remilitarisation of the
Rhineland were seen as reasonable - harder to stop making concessions
- Made concessions to Italy for similar reasons over Abyssinia and Germany over
Anschluss, had to do the same with Czechoslovakia
- Still trying to use the League of Nations- would undermine the system if they instigated
another war with Germany - collective security not working anymore
- Still wanted to use Germany as a buffer to communism
- Didn’t want to push Germany closer to Italy and Japan- still wanted Italy’s cooperation
- Thought Hitler was a reasonable statesman able to negotiate
Was the policy of appeasement justified during the Czech crisis?
For-:
- They made similar concession with Italy over Abyssinia and with Germany over
Anschluss
- Only able to gain all over Czechoslovakia after internal divisions- gave the appearance
that he was satisfied by the bits of Sudetenland that he was given- also Poland and
Hungary wanted bits of Czechoslovakia as well
- Hitler put forward compelling arguments that the Germans in the Sudetenland were
being treated harshly by the Czechs (although it was over-exaggerated) - for the good of
the German people who had been treated harshly- linking with the harsh treatment of
the Treaty of Versailles
- Need to use Germany as a buffer zone against the spread of communism- at the time
communism was the biggest threat to western civilisation, not Germany’s expansionist
ambitions- therefore the concession was for the greater good
- Appeasement worked as the handing over of Czechoslovakia was technically legal and
Germany hadn’t taken it fully with military support
- War = unpopular - going along with British demographic
- Gave them chance to prepare for war (UK + F)
- France and Britain were not ready for war- Germany had mobilised and after the
Rhineland they overestimated the strength of Germany - physically and psychologically
stronger
- Public supported Chamberlain’s appeasement as they did not want another war after
experiencing WW1
- France could not commit itself to war as it was having domestic issues
- France felt they did not have the support of Britain
- Wanted to avoid war and maintain peace in Europe- wanted to achieve this through
negotiation as this failed before the outbreak of WW1
- The French and British public were reluctant to go to war
- Felt that Germany had been treated harshly under the Treaty of Versailles, hence they
were willing to make concessions - earlier demands such as the remilitarisation of the
Rhineland were seen as reasonable - harder to stop making concessions
- Made concessions to Italy for similar reasons over Abyssinia and Germany over
Anschluss, had to do the same with Czechoslovakia
- Still trying to use the League of Nations- would undermine the system if they instigated
another war with Germany - collective security not working anymore
- Still wanted to use Germany as a buffer to communism
- Didn’t want to push Germany closer to Italy and Japan- still wanted Italy’s cooperation
- Thought Hitler was a reasonable statesman able to negotiate
Was the policy of appeasement justified during the Czech crisis?
For-:
- They made similar concession with Italy over Abyssinia and with Germany over
Anschluss
- Only able to gain all over Czechoslovakia after internal divisions- gave the appearance
that he was satisfied by the bits of Sudetenland that he was given- also Poland and
Hungary wanted bits of Czechoslovakia as well
- Hitler put forward compelling arguments that the Germans in the Sudetenland were
being treated harshly by the Czechs (although it was over-exaggerated) - for the good of
the German people who had been treated harshly- linking with the harsh treatment of
the Treaty of Versailles
- Need to use Germany as a buffer zone against the spread of communism- at the time
communism was the biggest threat to western civilisation, not Germany’s expansionist
ambitions- therefore the concession was for the greater good
- Appeasement worked as the handing over of Czechoslovakia was technically legal and
Germany hadn’t taken it fully with military support
- War = unpopular - going along with British demographic
- Gave them chance to prepare for war (UK + F)
