NR602 Final Study Questions and answers best exam
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Final Study Questions
A sexually active 18-years old presents with postcoital spotting, dysuria and a yellow
discharge. On exam you find her cervix is erythematous and bleeds with contact.
The most likely diagnosis is
a. Cervical cancer
b. Chlamydia
c. Primary syphilis
d. Tampon injury
One of the leading causes of female infertility, Stein-Leventhal syndrome is
a. Pelvic inflammatory disease
b. Polycystic ovary disease
c. Multiple sex partners
d. Ectopic pregnancy syndrome
HIV test is indicated for a (n)
a. 18-year-old female whose sex partner has a history of genital warts
b. 24-year-old female with current genital warts as adjunct to routine pap test
c. 30-year-old female with no history of genital warts as adjunct to routine
pap test
d. 67-year old female with new sex partner in past year who has history of genital
warts
Which of the following contraceptive methods would be best for a woman with
sickle cell anemia?
a. Combination oral contraceptives
b. Transdermal contraceptive patch
NR602 Final Study Questions and answers
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2023 rated A+
,NR602 Final Study Questions and answers best exam
solution guaranteed success 2023/2024 rated A+
download for success
c. Progestin-only contraceptives
d. Female condom
A 24-year old female presents to your office with a request for combination contraceptives.
Her current medications include a bronchodilator for asthma. Management for this client should
include advising her that:
Combination oral contraceptives are not recommended for women with asthma
Combination oral contraceptives may potentiate the action of her
bronchodilator She should use a backup method if using the bronchodilator several
days in a row Progestin-only contraceptive injections may reduce her asthma attacks
The CDC recommendation for follow-up of a female treated for PID with a
recommended outpatient regimen is:
Advise patient to return if pain and/or fever persists more than five days
Re-examine patient within 72 hours after initiation of treatment
Retest for chlamydia and gonorrhea in two weeks
See patient in one week for second dose ceftriaxone IM
A 16-year old woman has not yet begun menstruating but does have secondary sexual
characteristics. She is best described as having:
Asherman’s syndrome
Oligomenorrhea
Primary amenorrhea
Secondary amenorrhea
The glands located posteriorly on each side of the vaginal orifice are the:
NR602 Final Study Questions and answers
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2023 rated A+
, NR602 Final Study Questions and answers best exam
solution guaranteed success 2023/2024 rated A+
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Bartholin’s glands
Bulbar glands
Natorian glands
Skene’s glands
Typical characteristics of vulvodynia include:
Constant vulvar burning and
discomfort Inflammation of the vestibular
glands Thickened plaques on the vulva
Valvovaginal edema and erythema
The most common type of invasive breast carcinoma is:
Infiltrating ductal
Medullary
Lobular
Infiltrating papillary
A dancer from an adult club down the street comes in for a renewal of her birth control pill
prescription. She says everything is fine. On exam, you find grayish-white vaginal discharge,
greenish cervical discharge, and cervical motion tenderness. All of the following are differential
diagnoses except?
NR602 Final Study Questions and answers
best exam solution guaranteed bsuccess
2023 rated A+
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