NURS 472A NURSING PHARMACOLOGY EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2024 UPDATE
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Course
NURSING PHARMACOLOGY
Institution
NURSING PHARMACOLOGY
1 . A healthcare provider prescribes cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex) for a client with a postoperative infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what additional drug allergy before administering this prescription?
A) Penicillins.
B) Aminoglycosides.
C) Erythromycins.
D) Sul...
NURS 472 A NURSING PHARMACOLOGY
EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2024
UPDATE
1 . A healthcare provider prescribes cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex) for a client with a postoperative infection. It
is most important for the nurse to assess for what additional drug allergy before administering this prescription?
A) Penicillins.
B) Aminoglycosides.
C) Erythromycins.
D) Sulfonamides.
A) Penicillins.
Cross-allergies exist between penicillins (A) and cephalosporins, such as cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex), so
checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution before administering this drug.
2. Which nursing intervention is most important when caring for a client receiving the antimetabolite cytosine
arabinoside (Arc-C) for chemotherapy?
A) Hydrate the client with IV fluids before and after infusion.
B) Assess the client for numbness and tingling of extremities.
C) Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations.
D) Monitor the client's urine pH for increased acidity.
C) Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations.
Cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) affects the rapidly growing cells of the body, therefore stomatitis and mucosal
ulcerations are key signs of antimetabolite toxicity (C). (A, B, and D) are not typical interventions associated with
the administration of antimetabolites.
3. When assessing an adolescent who recently overdosed on acetaminophen (Tylenol), it is most important for the
nurse to assess for pain in which area of the body?
A) Flank.
,B) Abdomen.
C) Chest.
D) Head.
B) Abdomen.
Acetaminophen toxicity can result in liver damage; therefore, it is especially important for the nurse to assess for
pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen (B), which might indicate liver damage. (A, C, and D) are not areas
where pain would be anticipated.
4. An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch (Transderm Scop) to prevent motion sickness
while on a cruise. Which information should the nurse provide to the client?
A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
B) Change the patch every other day while on the cruise.
C) Place the patch on a hairless area at the base of the skull.
D) Drink no more than 2 alcoholic drinks during the cruise.
A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
Scopolamine, an anticholinergic agent, is used to prevent motion sickness and has a peak onset in 6 hours, so the
client should be instructed to apply the patch at least 4 hours before departure (A) on the cruise ship. The duration
of the transdermal patch is 72 hours, so (B) is not needed. Scolopamine blocks muscarinic receptors in the inner
ear and to the vomiting center, so the best application site of the patch is behind the ear, not at the base of the
skull (C). Anticholinergic medications are CNS depressants, so the client should be instructed to avoid alcohol (D)
while using the patch.
5. The nurse is reviewing the use of the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump with a client in the immediate
postoperative period. The client will receive morphine 1 mg IV per hour basal rate with 1 mg IV every 15 minutes
per PCA to total 5 mg IV maximally per hour. What assessment has the highest priority before initiating the PCA
pump?
A) The expiration date on the morphine syringe in the pump.
B) The rate and depth of the client's respirations.
C) The type of anesthesia used during the surgical procedure.
D) The client's subjective and objective signs of pain.
B) The rate and depth of the client's respirations.
A life-threatening side effect of intravenous administration of morphine sulfate, an opiate narcotic, is respiratory
depression (B). The PCA pump should be stopped and the healthcare provider notified if the client's respiratory
rate falls below 12 breaths per minute, and the nurse should anticipate adjustments in the client's dosage before
the PCA pump is restarted. (A, C, and D) provide helpful information, but are not as high a priority as the
assessment described in (B).
6. A medication that is classified as a beta-1 agonist is most commonly prescribed for a client with which
condition?
A) Glaucoma.
B) Hypertension.
, C) Heart failure.
D) Asthma.
C) Heart failure.
Beta-1 agonists improve cardiac output by increasing the heart rate and blood pressure and are indicated in heart
failure (C), shock, atrioventricular block dysrhythmias, and cardiac arrest. Glaucoma (A) is managed using
adrenergic agents and beta-adrenergic blocking agents. Beta-1 blocking agents are used in the management of
hypertension (B). Medications that stimulate beta-2 receptors in the bronchi are effective for bronchoconstriction
in respiratory disorders, such as asthma (D).
7. A female client with rheumatoid arthritis take ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg PO 4 times a day. To prevent
gastrointestinal bleeding, misoprostol (Cytotec) 100 mcg PO is prescribed. Which information is most important for
the nurse to include in client teaching?
A) Use contraception during intercourse.
B) Ensure the Cytotec is taken on an empty stomach.
C) Encourage oral fluid intake to prevent constipation.
D) Take Cytotec 30 minutes prior to Motrin.
A) Use contraception during intercourse.
Cytotec, a synthetic form of a prostaglandin, is classified as pregnancy Category X and can act as an abortifacient,
so the client should be instructed to use contraception during intercourse (A) to prevent loss of an early
pregnancy. (B) is not necessary. A common side effect of Cytotec is diarrhea, so constipation prevention strategies
are usually not needed (C). Cytotec and Motrin should be taken together (D) to provide protective properties
against gastrointestinal bleeding.
8. A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which information is most important for the
nurse to provide to the client about diet modifications?
A) Do not add salt to foods during preparation.
B) Refrain for eating foods high in potassium.
C) Restrict fluid intake to 1000 ml per day.
D) Increase intake of milk and milk products.
B) Refrain for eating foods high in potassium.
Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone antagonist, is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so a diet high in potassium
should be avoided (B), including potassium salt substitutes, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Although (A) is a
common diet modification in heart failure, the risk of hyperkalemia is more important with Aldactone. Restriction
of fluids (C) or increasing milk and milk products (D) are not indicated with this prescription.
9. In evaluating the effects of lactulose (Cephulac), which outcome should indicate that the drug is performing as
intended?
A) An increase in urine output.
B) Two or three soft stools per day.
C) Watery, diarrhea stools.
D) Increased serum bilirubin.
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