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NSG 6440 PREDICTOR TEST PROCTORED EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED SOLUTIONS AND RATIONALE A+ GRADE ASSURED $14.69
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NSG 6440 PREDICTOR TEST PROCTORED EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED SOLUTIONS AND RATIONALE A+ GRADE ASSURED
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NSG 6440 PREDICTOR TEST PROCTORED EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED SOLUTIONS AND RATIONALE A+ GRADE ASSURED

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  • February 17, 2024
  • 87
  • 2023/2024
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers

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  • nsg 6440
  • nsg 6440 predictor
  • nsg 6440 predictor test
  • nsg 6440 predictor test proctored
  • nsg 6440 predictor test proctored exam
  • nsg 6440 predictor test proctored exam questions

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NSG 6440 PREDICTOR TEST PROCTORED
EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS AND RATIONALE /A+ GRADE
ASSURED

• A 15 years old high school student with a mild sore throat and low-grade fever that
has persisted for about 3 weeks. She reports general malaise, fatigue, and loss of appetite.
The NPsuspects mononucleosis. Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate
intervention?
• Palpate the lymph nodes and spleen
• Examine the posterior oropharynx for petechiae
• Obtain a CBC, throat culture, and heterophil antibody
test.
• d. Obtain an urinalyses and serum for LFTs and
amylase

Explanation: mononucleosis is a symptomatic infection caused by the Epstein-Bar virus.
Common is people 15-24 years of age. Common signs and symptoms following incubation
period (1-2 months) include fatigue, chills, malaise, anorexia, white tonsillar exudates and
lymphadenopathy or posterior cervical region. Splenomegaly can be present. A
maculopapular oroccasionally a petechial rash occurs in less than 15% of patients. A
diagnosis is usually made using the Monospot. In addition, neutropenia and lymphocytosis
are usually detected in the CBC.

• A 32 years old male patient complaint of urinary frequency and burning on urination
for 3 days. Urinalyses reveals bacteriuria and positive nitrites. He denies any past hx. Of
urinary tractinfections. The initial treatment should be:
• trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Sulfatrim) for 7-10 day
• ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for 3-5 days
• Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
• 750 mg ciprofloxacin as a one-time dose

Explanation: trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMPS) is usually n appropriate medication to
treat urinary tract infections in most patients. In the case of community resistance to TMPS
>20%^, another medication should be substituted. In men, the appropriate length of time is
7-10days. Women may be treated for 3 days for uncomplicated UTI

• Which agent is most effective for the treatment of nodulocystic acne?
• Benzoyl peroxide (Benzac)
• Retinoic acid (Retin A)

,• Topical
tetracyclined.
Isotretinoin)

Explanation: Isotretinoin (Accutane) is a systemic agent indicated for treatment with severe
inflammatory acne. Guidelines for its use must be clearly understood by the patient. A
woman ofchildbearing age must use an effective method of contraception because
isotretinoin is teratogenic. There are many restrictions in prescribing this medication because
of the teratogeniceffects is given during pregnancy. Therefore, it is a pregnancy category X.

• An 18 y/o woman is taking a combined hormonal oral contraceptive. She
should be instructed to use a backup method for the prevention of pregnancy
• Throughout the week of placebo pills
• If prescribed topiramate (Topamax) for the treatment of migraines.

• If prescribed amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) for a sinus infection
• if she forgets to take a single dose of the contraceptive

Explanation: Anticonvulsant including phenytoin (Dilantin), carbamazepine (Tegretol),
primidone (Mysoline), topiramate (Topamax) and oxcarbazepine (Trileptal) reduce the
effectiveness of contraceptives. Depo-medroxyprogesterone acetate injections or
levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine devices would be a better method of contraceptive for
patients taking anticonvulsants. Most commonly used antibiotics have not been proven to
reduce the effectiveness of contraceptives. Rifampin is an exception, and additional …. Be
used by womentaking this drug and using oral contraceptives, transdermal, or vaginal ring
preparations.
Additional backup contraception should be used if taking antifungal agents. No additional
protection is needed thought the week of placebo pills. Missing one single dose of
contraceptivedoes not require additional protection, missing more than one doses does.

• A 44 years old female patient has diabetes. Her total cholesterol (TC) is 250 mg/dl (6.5
mmol/L), LDL= 190 mg/dL (4.94 mmol/L), HDL= 25 mg/dL (65 mmol/L), and
triglycerides= 344 mg/dL (8.94 mmol/L). What agent have the greatest effect on improving
her lipid profile andreducing morbidity and mortality associates with dyslipidemia?
a. Niacin
(Niaspan) b.
Atorvastatin
• Omega 3 fatty acids
• Fenofibrates
Explanation: First and foremost, it is essential to educate individuals on a heart-healthy
lifestyle. LDL-C is one of the major culprits in the development of atherosclerotic heart
disease. The target level of LDL-C is between 50 to 70mg/dl to prevent plaque formation in
the blood vessels. Guidelines strongly recommend statin therapy because they primarily
lower LDL-C levels, but they also have the secondary effects of lowering triglyceride and
increasing HDL-C levels.

,• A 30 years old female comes into a clinic with classic signs and symptoms of
appendicitis. The NP fails to refer the patient to a surgeon. The appendix ruptures and the
woman die. This is an example of
• Failure of diligence
• Professional liability
• Neglige
nced.
Malprac
tice

Explanation: malpractice, a negligence tort, occurs when a health care professional’s actions
fall
bellow the appropriate standard of care and hurts the patient. In this case the patient came
withsings and symptoms indicating appendicitis and the NP failed to refer the patient..

• A NP has recently been hired to work in a fast track facility. The NP employer
asked ifshe has “a problem prescribing medications for emergency contraception.” The
NP replies affirmatively. This is:
• Grounds for dismissal
• An ethical dilemma for the NP

• Illegal according to the standards of nursing
• Patient abandonment.
Explanation: in this instance, the NP has a difference of opinion with her employer based on
herreligious or moral belief about providing emergency contraception. This situation is an
example of an ethical dilemma. Failure to participate in the provision of care to the patient
based on the NP’s beliefs is neither against the law nor a violation of the standards of practice

• A patient presents with pruritic lesions on both knees. There are visible silver scales.
HowShould this condition be managed?
• Topical antifungal cream or ointment
• Oral antibiotics
• Topical corticosteroids cream
• Topical anti-fungal/ steroid cream

Explanation: Psoriasis is characterized by erythematous papules, as well as itchy, red,
preciselydefined plaques with silvery scales. Auspitz sings is another common finding.
Topical agents containing tar and salicylic acid may be used. Topical steroids, such as
betamethasone, may also be ordered.

• Antidepressant discontinuation syndrome is less likely if the patient
• Is male
• Is less than 35 y/o
• Has taken an SSRI with a short half
lifed. Gradually tapers SSRI use

Explanation: Antidepressant discontinuation syndrome is most often seen in the primary care

, office in association with SSRI discontinuation, because SSRIs are the most commonly
prescribed class of antidepressant medications. Interruption of treatment with an anti-
depressant medication is sometimes associated with an antidepressant discontinuation
syndrome; in early reports it was referred to as a “withdrawal reaction. Symptoms of
antidepressant discontinuationsyndrome can include flu-like symptoms, insomnia, nausea,
imbalance, sensory disturbances, and hyperarousal. Tapering is recommended by experts.

• Patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) should be taught to avoid which one of
thefollowing drug classes?
• Alpha adrenergic antagonist
• Anti-androgen agents
• Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)
• Sulfonamides
Explanation: tricyclic antidepressant should not be used by men with benign prostatic
hyperplasia because of the increased risk of urinary retention secondary to the anticholigergic
effects of TCAs.

• Which of the following is the best response to a woman who has just admitted she
is avictim of spousal abuse?
• What was if you did to make him angry?

• You must seek refuge
immediatelyc. I am
concerned about your safety
d. I am going to call a shelter for you
Explanation: The first step is to establish trust in the therapeutic relationship. without trust
future collaboration, intervention and client outcome cannot be accomplished to facilitate
appropriate and safe behavior. The experience of abuse is a traumatic psychological crisis
that must be addressed as such. The healthcare providers must emphasize the fact that the
victim has not done anything wrong and they must also emphasize the fact that the victim's
life and the livesof their children can be in danger if the abuse is not addressed. It will not
disappear with a lack of action. An order of protection against the perpetrator is often
recommended.


• For which patient group does the US Preventive Services Task Force recommend
routinescreening for asymptomatic bacteriuria
• pregnant woman
• Children
• Patients with diabetes
• patients over the age of 70
Explanation: an increased incidence of bacteriuria is found in all the population listed.
However, bacteriuria in pregnant women increases the mother…..Also increased is the risk of
a pre-term delivery, which then increases perinatal and fetal morbidity and mortality. The
recommended it….

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