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RNC – OB || with 100% Error-free Answers.

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naegele rule correct answers Method of determining due date how to determine Naegele Rule? correct answers determine date of onset of LMP, add 7 days, subtract 3 months. alternative method to determine EDD correct answers determine date of onset of LMP, count 40 weeks from that day fetal d...

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  • February 26, 2024
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RNC – OB || with 100% Error-free Answers.
naegele rule correct answers Method of determining due date
how to determine Naegele Rule? correct answers determine date of onset of LMP, add 7 days, subtract 3 months.
alternative method to determine EDD correct answers determine date of onset of LMP, count 40 weeks from that day
fetal development sequence correct answers fertilization of egg by sperm, blastocyst, uterine implantation, embryonic stage, fetal stage
invasive prenatal screening correct answers CVS, PUBS, Amniocentesis
mothers who are RH- and unimmunized should receive ____________ prior to procedures as prophylaxis. correct answers 300 mg IM Rh Immune Globulin
CVS - Chorionic Villus Sampling correct answers tests tissue from the placenta - used to obtain trophoblast cells for analysis; transcervical or transabdominal approach depending on placental location
when is a CVS performed? correct answers 10-13 weeks
contraindications for CVS correct answers maternal Rh sensitization, active vaginal/cervical infection, uterine fibroids, vag bleeding in last 2 weeks, marked retroverted/retroflexed uterus
Cordocentesis (PUBS - Percutaneous Umbilical Blood Sampling) procedure correct answers tests fetal blood - usually sampled from where the cord enters the placenta; umbilical vein preferred due to less risk of fetal bradycardia
when is PUBS performed? correct answers after 17 weeks
How is blood taken during PUBS confirmed to be fetal? correct answers MCV >100
What does PUBS stand for? correct answers Percutaneous Umbilical Blood Sampling - also called cordocentesis
what does PUBS detect? correct answers fetal infections, blood disorders, and chromosomal abnormalities. does not give information about neural tube defects.
most common complication from PUBS? correct answers bleeding from cord puncture site
what are signs of pregnancy? correct answers hegar sign, chadwick sign, goodell sign hegar sign correct answers lower uterine softening, presents as early as 4 weeks lasts until week 12
chadwick sign correct answers change of labia, cervical , or vaginal color from pink to bluish violet - noted as early as 6 weeks
goodell sign correct answers cervical softening due to increased vascularization, vessels below the uterus engorge from tissue hypertrophy
when is the first trimester? correct answers time from fertilization to the 12th week of pregnancy - includes embryonic stage (weeks 3-8)
major occurrences of first trimester correct answers implantation major organ development bone and tooth bud development sexual organs distinguishable nail beds form spontaneous fetal movements begin heartbeat audible via doppler in 12th week some reflexes may be present (babinski)
when is the second trimester? correct answers 13th week to the end of week 26
the second trimester is also called the correct answers "honeymoon" period
major occurrences of the second trimester? correct answers bone formation urine is excreted into the amniotic fluid fetal brain/CNS development fetal lung/alveolar development fetal startle reflex present eyes and ears develop sucking motions may be present subcutaneous fat begins to accumulate
what occurs late in second trimester? correct answers swallowing, hair patterns, lanugo, vernix, surfactant, fingerprints, testes begin to descend, sleep/wake patterns noticeable
quad screen correct answers measures amount of 4 markers in maternal blood to help diagnose spina bifida, down syndrome, or trisomy 18
what are the four markers the quad screen tests for? correct answers alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) - produced by fetus human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) - produced by placenta estriol unconjugated - produced by placenta and fetus dimeric inhibin-A - produced by placenta and ovaries when is the quad screen performed? correct answers between weeks 15 - 22
a positive quad screen may be followed up with what to confirm? correct answers amniocentesis
inhibin-A in a quad screen increased the likelihood of identifying ____________________ and decreases the risk of ______________________. correct answers down syndrome, false positives
quad screen is recommended to women who have one or more of what characteristics? correct answers age >34yrs family hx of birth defects hx of insulin-dependent diabetes hx of viral infection during current pregnancy hx of significant radiation at any time before/during pregnancy hx of harmful prescriptions medications used at any time just prior to pregnancy hx of illegal/street drug use or abuse all pregnant mothers may be offered quad testing
when to screen for GBS? correct answers 35-37 weeks
when is the third trimester? correct answers 27th week to delivery
infants born in the 3rd trimester have a _______ chance of survival. correct answers >90%
major occurrences of the third trimester? correct answers reflexes fully develop lungs mature significant fetal weight gain begins in week 35 RBCs develop in bone marrow lanugo beings to disappear in week 32 testes fully descend in week 39 fetus usually rotates to head down and begins to descend ("lighten") around 37 weeks
early term birth by gestation correct answers 37.0-38.6
full term birth by gestation correct answers 39.0-40.6
late term birth by gestation correct answers 41.0-41.6
post term birth by gestation correct answers 42.0 and beyond
placenta hormonal secretions correct answers estrogen, progesterone, human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), human placental lactogen (hPL)
estrogen correct answers promote ligament relaxation in the symphysis pubis and sacroiliac joints; causes enlargement of breasts, uterus, and external genitalia

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