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MED SURG II HESI EXAM 2024 WITH VERSION (A, B, &C) WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED RATIONALES ANSWERS BY EXPERTS |FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY GRADED A+ |NEWEST |LATEST UPDATE | GUARANTEED PASS $25.99   In winkelwagen
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MED SURG II HESI EXAM 2024 WITH VERSION (A, B, &C) WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED RATIONALES ANSWERS BY EXPERTS |FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY GRADED A+ |NEWEST |LATEST UPDATE | GUARANTEED PASS

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MED SURG II HESI EXAM 2024 WITH VERSION (A, B, &C) WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED RATIONALES ANSWERS BY EXPERTS |FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY GRADED A+ |NEWEST |LATEST UPDATE | GUARANTEED PASS

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  • 6 april 2024
  • 214
  • 2023/2024
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  • MED SURG II HESI
  • MED SURG II HESI

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Door: RegisteredNurse • 7 maanden geleden

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Door: drjohna • 7 maanden geleden

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Door: Dredward • 7 maanden geleden

very accurate i passed well

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Voorbeeld van de inhoud

1 | P a g e MED SURG II HESI EXA M 2024 WITH VERSION (A, B, &C) WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED RATIONALES ANSWERS BY EXPERTS |FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY GRADED A+ |NEWEST |LATEST UPDATE | GUARANTEED PASS MED SURG II HESI VERSI ON A The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH), which is manifested by which symptoms? A) Loss of thirst, weight gain. B) Dependent edema, fever. C) Polydipsia, polyuria. D) Hypernatremia, t achypnea. A) Loss of thirst, weight gain. SIADH occurs when the posterior pituitary gland releases too much ADH, causing water retention, a urine output of less than 20 ml/hour, and dilutional hyponatremia. Other indications of SIADH are loss of thirst, w eight gain (A), irritability, muscle weakness, and decreased level of consciousness. (B) is not associated with SIADH. (C) is a finding associated with diabetes insipidus (a water metabolism problem caused by an ADH deficiency), not SIADH. The increase in plasma volume causes an increase in the glomerular filtration rate that inhibits the release of rennin and aldosterone, which results in an increased sodium loss in urine, leading to greater hyponatremia, not (D). What types of medications should the nurse expect to administer to a client during an acute respiratory distress episode? A) Vasodilators and hormones. B) Analgesics and sedatives. C) Anticoagulants and expectorants. D) Bronchodilators and steroids. D) Bronchodilators and steroids. Besides supple mental oxygen, the ARDS client needs medications to widen air passages, increase air 2 | P a g e space, and reduce alveolar membrane inflammation, i.e., bronchodilators and steroids (D). (A) would not help the condition. (B) would further depress the client and compro mise the ability to breathe. Anticoagulants would be contraindicated since clotting of the blood is not yet a problem, and expectorants are not appropriate for this critically ill client (C). Which postmenopausal client's complaint should the nurse refer to the he althcare provider? A) Breasts feel lumpy when palpated. B) History of white nipple discharge. C) Episodes of vaginal bleeding. D) Excessive diaphoresis occurs at night. C) Episodes of vaginal bleeding. Postmenopausal vaginal bleeding (C) may be an indicat ion of endometrial cancer, which should be reported to the healthcare provider. Compared to a new -onset of a single lump, breasts that feel lumpy (A) overall may be a normal variant or a finding consistent with nonmalignant fibrocystic disease. Up to 80% o f women experience (B), depending on sexual stimulation or hormonal levels, and is no longer recommended as a reportable symptom when discovered during breast self -exam (BSE). The client may need further teaching concerning (D), a disturbing symptom, but i t is not as important as (C). Dysrhythmias are a concern for any client. However, the presence of a dysrhythmia is more serious in an elderly person because A) elderly persons usually live alone and cannot summon help when symptoms appear. B) elderly pers ons are more likely to eat high -fat diets which make them susceptible to heart disease. C) cardiac symptoms, such as confusion, are more difficult to recognize in the elderly. D) elderly persons are intolerant of decreased cardiac output which may result i n dizziness and falls. D) elderly persons are intolerant of decreased cardiac output which may result in dizziness and falls. Cardiac output is decreased with aging (D). Because of loss of contractility and elasticity, blood flow is decreased and tachycar dia is poorly tolerated. Therefore, if an elderly person experiences dysrhythmia (tachycardia or bradycardia), further compromising their cardiac output, they are more likely to experience syncope, falls, transient ischemic attacks, and possibly dementia. Most elderly persons do not eat high -fat diets (B) and most are not confused (C). Although many elderly persons do live alone, inability to summon help (A) cannot be assumed. A 77 -year -old female client is admitted to the hospital. She is confused, has no appetite, is nauseated and vomiting, and is complaining of a headache. Her pulse rate is 43 beats per minute. Which question is a priority for the nurse to ask this client or her family on admission? "Does the client A) have her own teeth or dentures?" B) take aspirin and if so, how much?" 3 | P a g e C) take nitroglycerin?" D) take digitalis?" D) take digitalis?" Elderly persons are particularly susceptible to digitalis intoxication (D) which manifests itself in such symptoms as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, headache, and fatigue. Although it is important to obtain a complete medication history (B and C), the symptoms described are classic for digitalis toxicity, and assessment of this problem should be made promptly. (A) is irrelevant. The nurse is caring for a client with a continuous feeding through a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care? A) Flush the tube with 50 ml of water q 8 hours. B) Check for tube placement and residual volume q4 hours. C) Obtain a daily x - ray to verify tube placement. D) Position on left side with head of bed elevated 45 degrees. B) Check for tube placement and residual volume q4 hours. Tube placement and residual volume should be checked before each feeding (B). Tube placement is checked by aspiration of stomach contents and measurement of pH. It is important to check for residual volume because gastric emptying is often delayed during illness. There is an increased risk for aspiration of the feeding with inc reased residual volume. (A, C, and D) are not correct procedures to follow. The nurse is taking a history of a newly diagnosed Type 2 diabetic who is beginning treatment. Which subjective information is most important for the nurse to note? A) A history of obesity. B) An allergy to sulfa drugs. C) Cessation of smoking three years ago. D) Numbness in the soles of the feet. B) An allergy to sulfa drugs. An allergy to sulfa drugs may make the client unable to use some of the most common antihyperglycemic agen ts (sulfonylureas). The nurse needs to highlight this allergy for the healthcare provider. (A) is common and warrants counseling, but does not have the importance of (B). (C) does increase the risk for vascular disease, but it is not as important to the tr eatment regimen as (B). Diabetic neuropathy, as indicated by (D), is common with diabetics, but when the serum glucose is decreased, new onset numbness can possibly improve. Small bowel obstruction is a condition characterized by which finding? A) Severe f luid and electrolyte imbalances. B) Metabolic acidosis. C) Ribbon -like stools. D) Intermittent lower abdominal cramping. 4 | P a g e A) Severe fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Among the findings characteristic of a small bowel obstruction is the presence of severe f luid and electrolyte imbalances (A). (B, C, and D) are findings associated with large bowel obstruction . A client who is receiving chemotherapy asks the nurse, "Why is so much of my hair falling out each day?" Which response by the nurse best explains the reason for alopecia? A) Chemotherapy affects the cells of the body that grow rapidly, both normal and malignant. B) Alopecia is a common side effect you will experience during long -term steroid therapy. C) Your hair will grow back completely after your cou rse of chemotherapy is completed. D) The chemotherapy causes permanent alterations in your hair follicles that lead to hair loss. A) Chemotherapy affects the cells of the body that grow rapidly, both normal and malignant. The common adverse effects of che motherapy (nausea, vomiting, alopecia, bone marrow depression) are due to chemotherapy's effect on the rapidly reproducing cells, both normal and malignant (A). (B and D) do not provide correct information about chemotherapy -induced alopecia. Although (D) is a true statement, it does not effectively answer the client's question. A 20 -year -old female client calls the nurse to report a lump she found in her breast. Which response is the best for the nurse to provide? A) Check it again in one month, and if it is still there schedule an appointment. B) Most lumps are benign, but it is always best to come in for an examination. C) Try not to worry too much about it, because usually, most lumps are benign. D) If you are in your menstrual period it is not a good ti me to check for lumps. B) Most lumps are benign, but it is always best to come in for an examination. (B) provides the best response because it addresses the client's anxiety most effectively and encourages prompt and immediate action for a potential prob lem. (A) postpones treatment if the lump is malignant, and does not relieve the client's anxiety. (C and D) provide false reassurance and do not help relieve anxiety. The nurse should be correct in withholding a dose of digoxin in a client with congestive heart failure without specific instruction from the healthcare provider if the client's A) serum digoxin level is 1.5. B) blood pressure is 104/68. C) serum potassium level is 3. D) apical pulse is 68/min. C) serum potassium level is 3. Hypokalemia (C) ca n precipitate digitalis toxicity in persons receiving digoxin which will increase the chance of dangerous dysrhythmias (normal potassium level is 3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L). The therapeutic range for digoxin is 0.8 to 2 ng/ml (toxic levels= >2 ng/ml); (A) is within this range. (B) would not warrant the nurse withholding the digoxin. The nurse should withhold the digoxin if the apical pulse is less than 60/min (D).

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