Radiographic Pathology for Technologists, 8th Edition TEST BANK by Kowalczyk, Verified Chapters 1 - 12, Complete Newest Version TEST BANK For Radiographic Pathology for Technologists, 8th Edition by Kowalczyk, Verified Chapters 1 - 12, Complete Newest Version Test Bank For Radiographic Pathology fo...
TEST BANK Radiographic Pathology for
Technologists 8th Edition by Kowalczyk
All Chapters 1 - 12 / Full Complete
, Radiographic Pathology for Technologists
TABLE OF CONTENTS
1. Introduction to Pathology
2. The Skeletal System
3. The Respiratory System
4. The Cardiovascular System
5. The Abdomen and Gastrointestinal System
6. The Hepatobiliary System
7. The Urinary System
8. The Central Nervous System
9. The Hemopoietic System
10. The Reproductive System
11. The Endocrine System
12. Traumatic Disease
, Radiographic Pathology for Technologists
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathology
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The sequence of events producing cellular changes following injury best defines:
a. manifestations.
b. pathogenesis.
c. sign.
d. symptom.
ANSWER: B REF: p. 2
2. An abnormal disturbance of the function and structure of the human body following injury
refers to:
a. disease.
b. etiology.
c. manifestations.
d. pathogenesis.
ANSWER: A REF: p. 2
3. The study of the cause of disease is termed:
a. disease.
b. etiology.
c. pathogenesis.
d. prognosis.
ANSWER: B REF: p. 2
4. Common agents that cause disease include:
1. bacteria.
2. chemicals.
3. heat.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANSWER: D REF: p. 2
5. A syndrome is best defined as:
a. a genetic abnormality of a single protein.
b. an adverse response to medical treatment.
c. the patient’s perception of the disease.
d. signs and symptoms that characterize a specific abnormal disturbance.
ANSWER: D REF: p. 2
6. An adverse response to medical treatment itself is termed:
a. autoimmune.
, Radiographic Pathology for Technologists
b. iatrogenic.
c. idiopathic.
d. nosocomial.
ANSWER: B REF: p. 3
7. Prognosis refers to:
a. diseases usually having a quick onset.
b. the name of the particular disease.
c. the predicted course and outcome of the disease.
d. the structure of cells or tissue.
ANSWER: C REF: p. 3
8. Diseases that generally require a decrease in the exposure technique are considered:
a. destructive.
b. lytic.
c. subtractive.
d. all of the above.
ANSWER: D REF: p. 3
9. The investigation of disease occurring in large groups best defines:
a. epidemiology.
b. incidence.
c. prevalence.
d. all of the above.
ANSWER: A REF: p. 3
10. Data regarding the number of deaths caused by a particular disease averaged over a population are
collected and reported by the:
a. American College of Radiology.
b. Centers for Disease Control.
c. Food and Drug Administration.
d. National Center for Health Statistics.
ANSWER: D REF: p. 2
11. Which of the following are leading causes of death in the United States for adults aged 45
years and greater?
1. Heart disease
2. Malignant neoplasm
3. Polycystic kidney disease
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANSWER: A REF: p. 4
12. In 2010, health spending accounted for approximately % of the U.S. gross domestic
product.
, Radiographic Pathology for Technologists
a. 12
b. 17
c. 21
d. 33
ANSWER: B REF: p. 7
13. Each cell in the human body, except the reproductive cells, contains pairs of autosomal
chromosomes and sex chromosomes.
a. 11; 1
b. 11; 2
c. 22; 1
d. 22; 2
ANSWER: D REF: p. 8
14. The types of gene maps that grew out of the identification of DNA sequences include
maps.
1. genetic
2. SNP
3. physical
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANSWER: B REF: p. 8
15. The identification of common DNA pattern sequences and common patterns of genetic
variations of single DNA bases resulted in:
a. the Genome Project.
b. genetic linkage maps.
c. haplotype mapping.
d. physical mapping.
ANSWER: C REF: p. 8
16. Diseases that are present at birth from genetic or environmental factors are classified as:
a. congenital.
b. degenerative.
c. genetic.
d. metabolic.
ANSWER: A REF: p. 10
17. A genetic disorder caused by an abnormality on one of the 22 nonsex chromosomes is
considered:
a. autosomal.
b. dominant.
c. recessive.
d. sex linked.
, Radiographic Pathology for Technologists
ANSWER: A REF: p. 11
18. A protein coat surrounding a genome of either RNA or DNA without an organized cellular
structure best describes which type of microorganism?
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Virus
d. All of the above
ANSWER: C REF: p. 11
19. The ease with which a pathogenic organism can overcome the body’s defenses best describes:
a. etiology.
b. infection.
c. pathogenesis.
d. virulence.
ANSWER: D REF: p. 12
20. Diseases caused by the disturbance of normal physiologic function are classified as:
a. degenerative.
b. metabolic.
c. neoplastic.
d. traumatic.
ANSWER: B REF: p. 13
21. The lymph node into which the primary neoplasm drains during metastasis is termed the
node.
a. primary
b. sentinel
c. metastatic
d. neoplastic
ANSWER: B REF: p. 14
22. The spread of cancerous cells into surrounding tissue by virtue of the close proximity best
describes:
a. lymphatic spread.
b. hematogenous spread.
c. invasion.
d. oncogenesis.
ANSWER: C REF: p. 16
23. Cancer originating in epithelial tissue is termed:
a. carcinoma.
b. leukemia.
c. lymphoma.
d. sarcoma.
ANSWER: A REF: p. 16
, Radiographic Pathology for Technologists
24. In classification of a tumor using the TNM system, the T refers to the:
a. size of the primary tumor.
b. lymph node involvement.
c. distant metastasis.
d. histologic grading of the primary tumor.
ANSWER: A REF: p. 16
25. Which of the following imaging modalities are used in the staging of neoplastic tumors?
1. CT
2. PET
3. MRI
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANSWER: D REF: p. 16
26. In the treatment of neoplastic disease, interferons and interleukins are associated with:
a. chemotherapy.
b. radiation therapy.
c. hormone therapy.
d. immunotherapy.
ANSWER: D REF: p. 16
MATCHING
Altered Cell Biology
Directions: Match the type of altered cell biology with the correct description.
a. A generalized decrease in cell size
b. A generalized increase in cell size
c. An increase in the number of cells in tissue as a result of excessive proliferation
d. Conversion of one cell type into another cell type
e. Abnormal changes of mature cells
1. ANSWER: B REF: p. 9
2. ANSWER: A REF: p. 9
3. ANSWER: D REF: p. 10
4. ANSWER: C REF: p. 9
5. ANSWER: E REF: p. 10
TRUE/FALSE
, Radiographic Pathology for Technologists
1. A tumor consisting of differentiated cells has a higher probability for malignancy.
ANSWER: F REF: p. 14
2. A histologic evaluation of a primary cancer that is graded as an “I” is considered well
differentiated.
ANSWER: T REF: p. 16
, Radiographic Pathology for Technologists
Chapter 2: Skeletal System Test
Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which primary bone tumor should be investigated with the utilization of CT?
a. Osteosarcoma
b. Osteoid osteoma
c. Chondrosarcoma
d. Ewing sarcoma
ANSWER: B REF: p. 48
2. A patient presents to his physician with anterior shoulder pain for several months. He has had no
recent injury and there is no relief with NSAIDs, ice, heat, and gentle range-of-motion exercises.
Radiographs of the shoulder demonstrate small microcalcifications of the subacromial space.
What is the differential diagnosis?
a. Rotator cuff tear
b. Labral tear
c. Calcific tendinitis
d. Anterior shoulder dislocation
ANSWER: C REF: p. 39
3. Which of the following characteristics does NOT assist in the differentiation between a
primary metastatic bone lesion as compared to a secondary metastatic bone lesion?
a. Soft tissue mass
b. Periosteal reaction
c. Length of lesion
d. Calcification of blood vessels
ANSWER: D REF: p. 54
4. What skeletal pathology presents radiographically with a “soap bubble” appearance?
a. Giant cell tumor
b. Ewing sarcoma
c. Osteoid osteoma
d. Osteoblastoma
ANSWER: A REF: p. 50
5. Osteopetrosis requires what type of technical factor change?
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. No change
ANSWER: A REF: p. 27
6. Tenosynovitis requires what type of technical factor change?
a. Increase
b. Decrease
, Radiographic Pathology for Technologists
c. No change
ANSWER: C REF: p. 39
7. Which neoplasm involves a nidus?
a. Osteoid osteoma
b. Osteoblastoma
c. Osteosarcoma
d. Paget disease
ANSWER: A REF: p. 48
8. Which disease is congenital?
a. Pott disease
b. Osteoporosis
c. Paget disease
d. Osteogenesis imperfecta
ANSWER: D REF: p. 24
9. Spondylolysis is a result of a cleft or defect in the vertebral:
a. pedicle.
b. lamina.
c. spinous process.
d. pars interarticularis.
ANSWER: D REF: p. 42
10. Diploë is specific to cancellous bone located in what anatomic structure?
a. Femur
b. Humerus
c. Sternum
d. Skull
ANSWER: D REF: p. 20
11. A 15-year-old male patient presents for a right knee series after sustaining a varus injury while
playing football. AP, lateral, and both oblique radiographs of the knee demonstrate an avulsion
fracture of the lateral tibial plateau (Segond fracture). What additional imaging modality would be
best utilized in the diagnosis for this patient?
a. CT
b. Knee arthrography
c. MRI
d. Nuclear medicine
ANSWER: C REF: p. 23
12. Heberden nodes and Bouchard nodes are associated with what skeletal pathology?
a. Osteomyelitis
b. Osteoarthritis
c. Paget disease
d. Pott disease
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