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TEST BANK ATI MENTAL HEALTH PROCTORED EXAM 2024Psychiatric Medications NCLEX Challenge Exam (Quiz #9: 25 Questions) $12.99
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TEST BANK ATI MENTAL HEALTH PROCTORED EXAM 2024Psychiatric Medications NCLEX Challenge Exam (Quiz #9: 25 Questions)
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Description: Prepare for success in your mental health and psychiatric nursing exams with our comprehensive ATI NCLEX Challenge Exam (Quiz #1: 50 Questions) package, complete with detailed answers and explanations. This invaluable resource is tailored to help nursing students and professionals ali...

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ATI MENTAL HEALTH PROCTORED EXAM
2024Psychiatric Medications NCLEX
Challenge Exam (Quiz #9: 25 Questions)
1. 1. Question

1 point(s)
Jose is diagnosed with amphetamine psychosis and was admitted to the
emergency room. Nurse Ronald would most likely prepare to administer
which of the following medication?

o A. Librium
o B. Valium
o C. Ativan
o D. Haldol
Correct
Correct Answer: D. Haldol
The nurse would prepare to administer an antipsychotic medication such
as Haldol to a client experiencing amphetamine psychosis to decrease
agitation & psychotic symptoms, including delusions, hallucinations &
cognitive impairment. Haloperidol is a first-generation (typical)
antipsychotic medication that is used widely around the world. Food and
Drug Administration (FDA) approved the use of haloperidol is for
schizophrenia, Tourette syndrome (control of tics and vocal utterances in
adults and children), hyperactivity (which may present as impulsivity,
difficulty maintaining attention, severe aggressivity, mood instability, and
frustration intolerance), severe childhood behavioral problems (such as
combative, explosive hyperexcitability), intractable hiccups. It is a typical
antipsychotic because it works on positive symptoms of schizophrenia,
such as hallucinations and delusions.
• Option A: Chlordiazepoxide is a long-acting benzodiazepine
and is an FDA approved medication for adults with mild-
moderate to severe anxiety disorder, preoperative
apprehension and anxiety, and withdrawal symptoms of acute
alcohol use disorder. It is also FDA approved for pediatric

, patients greater than six years old for anxiety.
Chlordiazepoxide has anti-anxiety, sedative, appetite-
stimulating, and weak analgesic actions.
• Option B: Diazepam is an anxiolytic benzodiazepine, first
patented and marketed in the United States in 1963. It is a
fast-acting, long-lasting benzodiazepine commonly used in
the treatment of anxiety disorders, as well as alcohol
detoxification, acute recurrent seizures, severe muscle spasm,
and spasticity associated with neurologic disorders. In the
setting of acute alcohol withdrawal, diazepam is useful for
symptomatic relief of agitation, tremor, alcoholic hallucinosis,
and acute delirium tremens.
• Option C: Lorazepam has common use as the sedative and
anxiolytic of choice in the inpatient setting owing to its fast (1
to 3 minute) onset of action when administered intravenously.
Lorazepam is also one of the few sedative-hypnotics with a
relatively clean side effect profile. Lorazepam is FDA approved
for short-term (4 months) relief of anxiety symptoms related
to anxiety disorders, anxiety-associated insomnia, anesthesia
premedication in adults to relieve anxiety, or to produce
sedation/amnesia, and treatment of status epilepticus.
2. 2. Question

1 point(s)
Which of the following liquids would nurse Leng administer to a female
client who is intoxicated with phencyclidine (PCP) to hasten excretion of
the chemical?

o A. Shake
o B. Tea
o C. Cranberry Juice
o D. Grape juice
Answer
Correct Answer: C. Cranberry Juice
An acid environment aids in the excretion of PCP. The nurse will definitely
give the client with PCP intoxication cranberry juice to acidify the urine to a

, ph of 5.5 & accelerate excretion. PCP begins to cause symptoms at a dose
of 0.05mg/kg, and a dose of 20 mg or more can cause seizures, coma, and
death. It is mainly metabolized by the liver, and 10% is excreted in the
kidneys. Inhalation (the most common route of administration) and
intravenous routes of administration produce symptoms in 2 to 5 minutes.
Oral ingestion produces symptoms in 30 to 60 minutes.
• Option A: Most patients survive PCP intoxication with
supportive care. Airway, breathing, circulation, and
hemodynamic monitoring are essential to the care of patients
with PCP toxicity. Intubation with ventilatory support may be
required for airway protection. Sedation with medication and
physical restraints may be required to control agitation, violent
behavior, and psychosis due to PCP intoxication. Placing the
patient in a calm environment such as a quiet room with the
lights dimmed may be helpful. Benzodiazepines are the
preferred medication for chemical sedation in patients with
PCP toxicity.
• Option B: Patients with mild symptoms can be discharged one
to 2 hours after they become symptom-free and have no other
medical complications or behavioral issues that need to be
addressed. Patients with severe symptoms or medical
complications should be admitted to a monitored bed.
Patients who are asymptomatic who present to the emergency
department after PCP use should be observed for at least 6
hours before being discharged.
• Option D: PCP is available as a powder, crystal, liquid, and
tablet. It produces both stimulation and depression of the
CNS. PCP is a non-competitive antagonist to the NMDA
receptor, which causes analgesia, anesthesia, cognitive defects,
and psychosis. PCP blocks the uptake of dopamine and
norepinephrine, leading to sympathomimetic effects such as
hypertension, tachycardia, bronchodilation, and agitation. PCP
can also cause sedation, muscarinic, and nicotinic signs by
binding to acetylcholine receptors and GABA receptors. Sigma
receptor stimulation by PCP causes lethargy and coma.
3. 3. Question

1 point(s)

, When developing a plan of care for a female client with acute stress
disorder who lost her sister in a car accident. Which of the following would
the nurse expect to initiate?

o A. Facilitating progressive review of the accident and its
consequences.
o B. Postponing discussion of the accident until the client brings it up.
o C. Telling the client to avoid details of the accident.
o D. Helping the client to evaluate her sister’s behavior.
Answer
Correct Answer: A. Facilitating progressive review of the accident and
its consequences
The nurse would facilitate progressive review of the accident and its
consequence to help the client integrate feelings & memories and to begin
the grieving process. Help patients reframe any destructive cognitions (eg,
beliefs that they acted terribly and are terrible people or are weak for being
so distraught, that life is hopeless or worthless, or that the world is totally
unsafe).
• Option B: Support self-esteem; help patients understand that
their reaction to the trauma is a normal reaction to an
abnormal situation, not a sign of weakness or
psychopathology. Reassure and help survivors concerning
immediate needs, such as rest, food, shelter, social support, or
a sense of belonging to a community (some feel cut off and
detached).
• Option C: Promote coping mechanisms. Avoid prompting
discussion of issues that cannot be resolved; avoid abreaction
in groups and the resulting contagion effect; respect defenses,
and do not force reality on people who cannot handle it yet;
keep in mind that debriefing may be harmful. Discuss the
experience with patients who want to talk about it, and avoid
pressuring those who do not wish to discuss it.
• Option D: Check to see if children feel that they somehow
caused the death or disaster or if they have other
misunderstandings, and take pains to reassure them or correct
any misunderstanding; do not assume children are fine just

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