HESI MEDICAL SURGICAL EXIT EXAM | 2024 | MED SURG EXIT EXAM V1 (VERSION 1) 150 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ( NEW FULL EXAM ) GUARANTEED A+ Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus and a prescription for insulin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "I will shake the insulin vial before drawing up my dose." B. "I will store my unopened insulin vials in the refrigerator." C. "I will administer my insulin into my thigh muscle." D. "I will notify my provider if I have a fever." Answer: B. "I will store my unopened insulin vials in the refrigerator." Rationale: Insulin vials should be stored in the refrigerator to maintain potency. Shaking the vial is not recommended as it can cause air bubbles. Insulin should be administered subcutaneously, not into muscle. Fever should be reported, but it does not directly rel ate to the storage of insulin. Question 2: A client with chronic kidney disease is being discharged. Which dietary instruction should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Increase protein intake B. Limit potassium intake C. Increase sodium intake D. Limit carbohydrate intake Answer: B. Limit potassium intake Rationale: Clients with chronic kidney disease should limit potassium intake to prevent hyperkalemia. Protein intake should be moderate, not increased. Sodium intake should be limited to prevent fluid retention. Carbohydrate intake is not as directly related to kidn ey disease management. Question 3: A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider? A. Weight gain of 1.8 kg (4 lb) in 24 hours B. Dyspnea with exertion C. Fatigue D. Dependent edema Answer: A. Weight gain of 1.8 kg (4 lb) in 24 hours Rationale: A rapid weight gain indicates fluid retention and worsening heart failure, which requires immediate attention. Dyspnea, fatigue, and edema are also important but not as urgent as rapid weight gain. Question 4: A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which of the following statements indicates the client understands the procedure? A. "I will need to avoid eating solid food the day before the procedure." B. "I will be awake during the procedure." C. "I will need to take a laxative after the procedure." D. "I will need to limit my fluid intake the day before the procedure." Answer: A. "I will need to avoid eating solid food the day before the procedure." Rationale: The client should avoid solid food the day before a colonoscopy to ensure the colon is clear for visualization. The client is usually sedated during the procedure. Laxatives are taken before, not after. Fluid intake is encouraged to prevent dehydration fr om the bowel preparation. Question 5: A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a blood transfusion and develops chills. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. Stop the transfusion B. Check the client's temperature C. Notify the provider D. Administer acetaminophen Answer: A. Stop the transfusion Rationale: The priority action is to stop the transfusion to prevent further complications from a possible transfusion reaction. After stopping the transfusion, the nurse should check the client's temperature, notify the provider, and then administer acetaminophen i f ordered. Question 6: A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a stroke. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A. "You should avoid using handrails when climbing stairs." B. "You should perform range -of-
motion exercises daily." C. "You should avoid wearing shoes inside the house." D. "You should limit your fluid intake." Answer: B. "You should perform range -of-motion exercises daily." Rationale: Daily range -of-motion exercises help prevent contractures and maintain mobility. Handrails should be used for safety. Wearing supportive shoes inside the house can prevent falls. Fluid intake should not be limited unless specifically directed by the provi der. Question 7: A client is admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect? A. Bradypnea B. Hypothermia C. Nonproductive cough D. Tachycardia Answer: D. Tachycardia Rationale: Tachycardia is a common finding in clients with pneumonia due to fever and hypoxia. Bradypnea and hypothermia are not typical findings. Pneumonia usually causes a productive cough. Question 8: A nurse is preparing to administer medication to a client. Which of the following client identifiers should the nurse use? A. Room number B. Diagnosis C. Medical record number D. Next of kin Answer: C. Medical record number Rationale: The medical record number is a unique identifier that should be used to verify the correct client. Room number, diagnosis, and next of kin are not reliable identifiers. Question 9: A nurse is caring for a client who has a deep vein thrombosis and is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the medication is effective? A. Platelet count B. Hemoglobin level C. aPTT D. INR Answer: C. aPTT Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is monitored to determine the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Platelet count and hemoglobin levels are not directly related to heparin's effectiveness. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy. Question 10: A nurse is teaching a client who has hypertension about diet modifications. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A. "Increase your intake of dairy products." B. "Limit your intake of foods high in potassium." C. "Consume foods low in sodium." D. "Increase your intake of red meats." Answer: C. "Consume foods low in sodium." Rationale: Clients with hypertension should consume foods low in sodium to help control blood pressure. Increasing dairy intake is not specifically recommended unless for calcium needs. Potassium intake is typically not limited unless there are kidney issues. Red mea t intake should be moderated due to saturated fats. Question 11: A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse expect? A. Decreased bilirubin B. Increased albumin C. Elevated liver enzymes D. Decreased ammonia levels Answer: C. Elevated liver enzymes Rationale: In cirrhosis, liver enzymes such as AST and ALT are typically elevated due to liver cell damage. Bilirubin levels are usually increased, not decreased. Albumin levels are often decreased due to impaired liver function. Ammonia levels are usually elevated, not decreased. Question 12: A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has peptic ulcer disease. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "I should eat a snack before bedtime." B. "I will avoid drinking milk." C. "I will take NSAIDs for pain relief." D. "I should consume caffeine to stay alert." Answer: B. "I will avoid drinking milk." Rationale: Clients with peptic ulcer disease should avoid milk, as it can increase stomach acid production. Eating a snack before bedtime can increase gastric acid secretion and should be avoided. NSAIDs can exacerbate ulcers and should be avoided. Caffeine should b e limited as it can increase gastric acid production. Question 13: A client with asthma is experiencing an acute exacerbation. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer first?
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