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Test Bank for Basic and Clinical Pharmacology 15th Edition Katzung Trevor latest Update
Test Bank for Basic and Clinical Pharmacology 15th Edition Katzung Trevor latest Update
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GENERAL PHARMACOLOGY1. All of the following are general (e) Distribution of a drug out of the bloodstream
mechanisms of drug permeation Except terminates the drug’s effect
(a) Aqueous diffusion 4. Distribution of drugs to specific tissues
(b) Aqueous hydrolysis
(a) Is independent of blood flow to the organ
(c) Lipid diffusion
(b) Is independent of the solubility of the drug in
(d) Pinocytosis or endocytosis that tissue
(e) Special carrier transport (c) Depends on the unbound drug concentration
2. If the plasma concentration of a drug gradient between blood and tissue
declines with “first-order kinetics”, this (d) Is increased for drugs that are strongly bound
means that to plasma proteins
(a) There is only one metabolic path for drug (e) Has no effect on the half-life of the drug
disposition
5. A physical process by which a weak acid
(b) The half-life is the same regardless of the becomes less water-soluble and more
plasma concentration lipid-soluble at low pH is
(c) The drug is largely metabolized in the liver
(a) Distribution (b) Elimination
after oral administration and has low
bioavailability elimination (c) First-pass effect (d) Permeation
(d) The rate of climination is proportionate to (e) Protonation
the rate of administration at all times 6. Dose-response curves are used for drug
(e) The drug is not distributed outside the evaluation in the animal laboratory and
vascular system in the clinic, Quantal dose-response
curves are often
3. Regarding termination of drug action
(a) Used for determining the therapeutic index
(a) Drug must be exerted from the body to
terminate their action of a drug
(b) Metabolism of drugs always increases their (b) Used for determining the maximal efficacy
water solubility of a drug
(c) Metabolism of drugs always abolishes their (c) Invalid in the presence of inhibitors of the
pharmacologic activity drug being studied
(d) Hepatic metabolism and renal excretion are (d) Obtained from the study of intact subject but
the two most important mechanisms involved not from isolated tissue preparations
,2 MCQs IN PHARMACOLOGY
(e) Used to determine the statistical variation (a) Maximal efficacy
(standard deviation) of the maximal response (b) Therapeutic index
to the drug. (c) Drug potency
7. The following are excreted faster in basic (d) Grade dose-response curve
urine (e) Quantal dose-response curve
(a) Weak acids (b) Strong acids 12. Which of the following most accurately
(c) Weak Bases (d) None of the above describes the transmembrane signaling
process involved in steroid hormone
8. Which of the following statements about action ?
spare receptors is most correct ?
(a) Action on a membrane spanning tyrosine
(a) Spare receptors, in the absence of drug, are kinase
sequestered in the cytoplasm
(b) Activation of a G protein which activates or
(b) Spare receptors will be detected if the inhibits adenyl cyclase
intracellular effect of drug-receptor interaction (c) Diffusion into the cytoplasm and binding to
lasts longer than the drug-receptor interaction an intracellular receptor
itself
(d) Diffusion of “STAT” molecules across the
(c) Spare receptors influence the maximal membrane
efficacy of the drug-receptor system
(e) Opening of transmembrane ion channels
(d) Spare receptors activate the effector
machinery of the cell without the need for a 13. Which of the following is a phase II drug-
drug metabolizing reaction ?
(e) Spare receptors may be detected by the (a) Acetylation (b) Deamination
finding that the EC50 is greater than the Kd (c) Hydrolysis (d) Oxidation
for the agonist (e) Reduction
9. Which of the following terms best 14. Which of the following drugs may inhibit
describes an antagonist that interacts the hepatic microsomal P450 responsible
directly with the agonist and not at all or for warfarin metabolism
only incidentally, with the receptor ? (a) Cimetidine (b) Ethanol
(a) Pharmacological antagonist (c) Phenobarbital (d) Procainamide
(b) Partial agonist (e) Rifampin
(c) Physiological antagonist
15. With regard to clinical trials of new drugs,
(d) Chemical antagonist which of the following is most correct ?
(e) Noncompetitive antagonist
(a) Phase I involves the study of a small number
10. Which of the following terms best of normal volunteers by highly trained clinical
describes a drug that blocks the action of pharmacologists
epinephrine at its receptors by occupying (b) Phase II involves the use of the new drug in a
those receptors without activating them ? large number of patients (100-5000) who
have the disease to be treated
(a) Pharmacological antagonist
(c) Phase III involves the determination of the
(b) Partial agonist
drug’s therapeutic index by the cautious
(c) Physiological antagonist induction of toxicity
(d) Chemical antagonist (d) Chemical antagonist
(e) Noncompetitive antagonist (e) Phase II requires the use of a positive control
11. Which of the following provides information (a known effective drug) and a placebo
about the variation in sensitivity of the drug 16. Animal testing of potential new
within the population studied ? therapeutic agents
,GENERAL PHARMACOLOGY 3
(a) Extends over a time period of at least 3 years (c) Physostigmine (d) Pilocarpine
in order to discover late toxicities (e) Neostigmine
(b) Requires the use of at least two primate 22. Phenylephrine causes
species, eg. Monkey and baboon
(a) Constriction of vessels in the nasal mucosa
(c) Requires the submission of histopathologic
(b) Increased gastric secretion and motility
slides and specimens to the FDA for
government evaluation (c) Increased skin temperature
(d) Has good predictability for drug allergy-type (d) Miosis
reactions (e) All of the above
(e) May be abbreviated in the case of some very 23. Pretreatment with propranolol will block
toxic agents used in cancer which one of the following ?
17. The “dominant lethal” test involves the (a) Methacholine-induced tachycardia
treatment of a male adult animal with a (b) Nicotine-induced hypertension
chemical before mating; the pregnant (c) Norepinephrine-induced bradycardia
female is later examined for fetal death (d) Phenylephrine-induced mydriasis
and abnormalities. The dominant lethal
24. Most drug receptors are
test therefore is a test of
(a) Small molecules with a molecular weight
(a) Teratogenicity between 100 and 1000
(b) Mutagenicity (b) Lipids arranged in a bilayer configuration
(c) Carcinogenicity (c) Proteins located on cell membranes or in the
(d) All of the above cytosol
(e) None of the above (d) DNA molecules
(e) RNA molecules
18. The Ames test is a method for detecting
(a) Carcinogenesis in rodents 25. With regard to distribution of a drug from
the blood into tissues
(b) Carcinogenesis in primates
(c) Teratogenesis in any mammalian species (a) Blood flow to the tissue is an important
determinant
(d) Teratogenesis in primates
(b) Solubility of the drug in the tissue is an
(e) Mutagenesis in bacteria
important determinant
19. “Nicotinic” sites include all of the (c) Concentration of the drug in the blood is an
following except important determinant
(a) Bronchial smooth muscle (d) Size (volume) of the tissue is an important
(b) Adrenal medullary cells determinant
(c) Parasympathetic ganglia (e) All of the above are important determinants
(d) Skeletal muscle
26. The pH value is calculated mathematically
(e) Sympathetic ganglia
as the
20. A good example of chemical antagonism (a) Log of the hydroxyl ion (OH–) concentration
(a) Heparin & Protamine (b) Negative log of the OH– concentration
(b) Protamine & Zinc (c) Log of the hydrogen ion (H+) concentration
(c) Heparin & Prothrombin
(d) Negative log of the H+ concentration
(d) All the above
(e) Ratio of H+/OH– concentration
21. Which of the following agents is a pro-
drug that is much less toxic in mammals 27. Which property is classified as colligative?
than in insects ? (a) Solubility of a solute
(a) Acetylcholine (b) Bethanechol (b) Osmotic pressure
, 4 MCQs IN PHARMACOLOGY
(c) Hydrogen ion (H+) concentration (c) 0.3 m (d) 0.2 m
(d) Dissociation of a solute (e) 0.1 m
(e) Miscibility of the liquids
34. In the extemporaneous preparation of a
28. The colligative properties of a solution are suspension, levigation is used to
related to the (a) Reduce the zeta potential
(a) pH of the solution (b) Avoid bacterial growth
(b) Number of ions in the solution (c) Reduce particle size
(c) Total number of solute particles in the solution (d) Enhance viscosity
(d) Number of unionized molecules in the (e) Reduce viscosity
solution
35. Active transport differs from facilitated
(e) pKa of the solution
transport in following ways, except
29. The pH of a buffer system can be (a) Carrier is involved
calculated with the (b) It is against concentration gradient
(a) Noyes – Whitney equation (c) Energy is required
(b) Henderson – Hasselbalch equation (d) All of the above
(c) Michaelis – Menten equation
36. Vanishing cream is an ointment that may
(d) Yong equation
be classified as
(e) Stokes equation
(a) A water –soluble base
30. Which mechanism is most often (b) An oleaginous base
responsible for chemical degradation? (c) An absorption base
(a) Racemization (b) Photolysis (d) An emulsion base
(c) Hydrolysis (d) Decarboxylation (e) An oleic base
(e) Oxidation
37. Rectal suppositories intended for adult
31. Which equation is used to predict the use usually weigh approximately
stability of a drug product at room (a) 1g (b) 2g
temperature from experiments at
(c) 3g (d) 4g
accelerated temperature?
(e) 5g
(a) The stokes equation
(b) The Yong equation 38. In the fusion method of making cocoa
(c) The Arrhenius equation butter suppositories,which substance is
most likely to be used to lubricate the mold?
(d) The Michaelis – Menten equation
(e) The Hixson – Crowell equation (a) Mineral oil (b) Propylene glycol
(c) Cetyl alcohol (d) Stearic acid
32. Based on the relation between the degree
(e) Magnesium silicate
of ionization and the solubility of a weak
acid, the drug aspirin (pKa 3.49) will be 39. A very fine powdered chemical is defined
most soluble at as one that
(a) pH 1.0 (b) pH 2.0 (a) Completely passes through a # 80 sieve
(c) pH 3.0 (d) pH 4.0 (b) Completely passes through a # 120 sieve
(e) pH 6.0 (c) Completely passes through a # 20 sieve
33. The particle size of the dispersed solid in (d) Passes through a # 60 sieve and not more
a suspension is usually greater than than 40% through a # 100 sieve
(e) Passes through a # 40 sieve and not more
(a) 0.5 m (b) 0.4 m
than 60% through a # 60 sieve
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