WGU D115 OA ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM 2024
EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES LATEST UPDATED
Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important
diagnostic factors in TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI?
A) 13-15
B) 12-13
C) 9-12
D) 3-8
D) 3-8
The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.
Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?
A) Hallucinations
B) Compulsions
C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that
cause distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
D) Delusions
C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that
cause distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
During an intake interview with a 26-year-old man diagnosed with generalized
anxiety disorder, the FNP might observe what type of behavior?
A) An inflated sense of self
B) Constant relation to future events
C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
D) Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the interview
C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of
schizophrenia?
A) High energy with varying sleep patterns and non stop conversation.
B) Extreme and frequent mood swings with hyperactivity and difficulty concentrating.
,WGU D115 OA ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM 2024
EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES LATEST UPDATED
C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
D) Anti-social behavior, manipulative behavior, charisma, and ability to lie
convincingly.
C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
The characteristics of schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions, tangential thoughts,
suspiciousness, disorganized behavior, and hallucinations.
The FNP is seeing a 10 year old child with complaints of otalgia and muffled
hearing. The mother states the child recently recovered from an upper respiratory
infection. The FNP suspects that this child has:
A) Acute otitis media
B) Acute otitis externa
C) Cholesteatoma
D) Chronic otitis media
A) Acute otitis media
The classic presentation of otitis media is otalgia, muffled hearing, popping
sensation, and a recent history of a cold or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
The FNP understands that a potential complication of tonsillar infections, which is
characterized by severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, odynophagia, trismus,
and a "hot potato" voice; accompanied by fever, chills and malaise is indicative of:
A) Retropharyngeal abscess
B) Epiglotitis
C) Peritonsillar cellulitis
D) Peritonsillar abscess
D) Peritonsillar abscess
Peritonsillar abscess is characterized by severe sore throat, pain or difficulty
swallowing, jaw muscle spasms, and a hot potato voice.
A young adult female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of
nervousness, tremulousness, palpitations, heat intolerance, fatigue, weight loss,
and polyphagia. After a complete history and physical, along with thyroid function
tests, the FNP makes the diagnosis of hyperthyroidism, recognizing that the most
common cause of this condition is:
A) Thyroid cancer
B) Graves' disease
C) Pituitary adenoma
D) Postpartum thyroiditis
B) Graves' disease
Graves' disease, an autoimmune condition also known as "diffuse toxic
goiter" is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism in this age group.
During an evaluation of a patient with prediabetes, the FNP identifies which
,WGU D115 OA ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM 2024
EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES LATEST UPDATED
finding in the patient's objective data that is associated with the increasing
insulin resistance?
A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
, WGU D115 OA ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM 2024
EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES LATEST UPDATED
B) HDL > 40 mg/dL in men and >50 mg/dL in women
C) BP < 130/85 mm Hg
D) FBS < 110 mg/dL
A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
Improper use of glucose increases the release of free fatty acids which elevates
triglycerides.
When prescribing a meal plan for the patient with type 2 diabetes, the FNP tells
the patient that the macronutrient with the most influence on the postprandial
glucose level is:
A) Fiber
B) Fat
C) Protein
D) Carbohydrate
D) Carbohydrate
Carbohydrate is a macronutrient with the greatest impact on the postprandial glucose
levels.
Which of the following characteristics applies to type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A) Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis result from a lack of insulin.
B) This condition is commonly diagnoses on routine examination or work-up
for other health problems.
C) Initial response to oral sulfonylureas is usually favorable.
D) Insulin resistance is a significant part of the diease.
A) Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis result from a lack of insulin.
Type 1 DM is associated with beta cell destruction leading to absolute
insulin deficiency resulting in significant hyperglycemia and potential for
ketoacidosis.
Which of the following characteristics applies to type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A) Major risk factors are heredity and obesity
B) Pear-shaped body type is commonly found
C) Exogenous insulin is needed for control of the disease
D) Physical activity increases insulin resistance
A) Major risk factors are heredity and obesity
Risk factors of type 2 DM include increasing age, obesity, race, and genetics.
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for endometrial cancer?
A) Obesity
B) Oral contraceptive use
C) Unopposed estrogen use
D) Advancing age, greater than 50 years
B) Oral contraceptive use
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