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HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS FOR FINAL EXAM LATEST UPDATED 2024 GUARANTEED SUCCESS FOR GRADE A+… $11.49   Add to cart

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HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS FOR FINAL EXAM LATEST UPDATED 2024 GUARANTEED SUCCESS FOR GRADE A+…

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HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS FOR FINAL EXAM LATEST UPDATED 2024 GUARANTEED SUCCESS FOR GRADE A+…

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  • August 3, 2024
  • 65
  • 2024/2025
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Created by: A Solution


HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS FOR FINAL EXAM LATEST UPDATED 2024
GUARANTEED SUCCESS FOR GRADE A+…
A client is receiving clonidine (Catapres) 0.1 mg/24hr via transdermal patch. Which assessment
finding indicates that the desired effect of the medication has been achieved?
A. Client denies recent episodes of angina.


B. Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1.


C. Client denies recent nausea or vomiting.


D. Blood pressure has changed from 180/120 to 140/70. Correct - ✅✅Catapres acts as a
centrally- acting analgesic and antihypertensive agent. (D) indicates a reduction in hypertension.
Catapres does not affect (A, B, or C), so these findings do not indicate desired outcomes of
Catapres




After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin (LMWH).
During administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is receiving this
medication. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?
A. This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation. Correct


B. This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection.


C. This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs. Incorrect


D. This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal wound. -
✅✅Unfractionated




A+ Page 1

,Created by: A Solution


heparin or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is an anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin-
mediated conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and is given prophylactically to prevent
postoperative venous
thrombosis (A) or to treat pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis following knee and
abdominal surgeries. Heparin does not dissolve clots but prevents clot extension or further clot
formation (C). The anticoagulant heparin does not prevent infection (B) or influence operative
wound healing (D).


A client with coronary artery disease who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) receives a new
prescription for atorvastatin (Lipitor). Two weeks after initiation of the Lipitor prescription, the
nurse assesses the client. Which finding requires the most immediate intervention?
A. Heartburn.


B. Headache.


C. Constipation.


D. Vomiting. Correct - ✅✅Vomiting, anorexia and abdominal pain are early indications of
digitalis toxicity. Since Lipitor increases the risk for digitalis toxicity, this finding requires the
most immediate intervention by the nurse (D). (A, B and C) are expected side effects of Lipitor




A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which information is most
important for the nurse to provide to the client about diet modifications?
Do not add salt to foods during preparation. Refrain for eating foods high in potassium. Correct
Restrict fluid intake to 1000 ml per day.
Increase intake of milk and milk products. - ✅✅Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone
antagonist, is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so a diet high in potassium should be avoided (B),
including potassium salt substitutes, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Although (A) is a common
diet modification in heart failure, the risk of hyperkalemia is more important with Aldactone.
Restriction of fluids (C) or

A+ Page 2

,Created by: A Solution


increasing milk and milk products (D) are not indicated with this prescription.




A client with a dysrhythmia is to receive procainamide (Pronestyl) in 4 divided doses over the
next 24 hours. What dosing schedule is best for the nurse to implement?
q6h. Correct


QID.


AC and bedtime.


PC and bedtime. - ✅✅Pronestyl is a class 1A antidysrhythmic. It should be taken around-the-
clock (A) so that a stable blood level of the drug can be maintained, thereby decreasing the
possibility of
hypotension (an adverse effect) occurring because of too much of the drug circulating
systemically at any particular time of day. (B, C, and D) do not provide an around-the-clock
dosing schedule. Pronestyl may be given with food if GI distress is a problem, but an around-the-
clock schedule should still be
maintained.




A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago calls the triage nurse at the
clinic complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which statement reflects the correct
drug-specific teaching the nurse should provide to this client?




A+ Page 3

, Created by: A Solution



A. Increase consumption of potassium-rich foods since low potassium levels can cause
muscle spasms.




B. Have serum electrolytes checked at the next scheduled appointment to assess
hyponatremia, a cause of cramping.




C. Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because muscle pain may be an
indication of a serious side effect. Correct




D. Be sure to consume a low-cholesterol diet while taking the drug to enhance the
effectiveness of the drug. - ✅✅Myopathy, suggested by the leg pain and weakness, is a serious,
and potentially life-
threatening, complication of Lipitor, and should be evaluated immediately by the healthcare
provider (C).
Although electrolyte imbalances such as (A or B) can cause muscle spasms in some cases, this is
not the likely cause of leg pain in the client receiving Lipitor, and evaluation by the healthcare
provider should not be delayed for any reason. A low-cholesterol diet is recommended for those
taking Lipitor since the drug is used to lower total cholesterol (D), but diet is not related to the
leg pain symptom.

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