EMT (basic) level of training correct answers Provide basic, immediate care including bleeding control, CPR, AED, and emergency childbirth. Advanced oxygen and ventilation skills, pulse oximetry, noninvasive blood pressure monitoring, and administration of certain medications.
EMT roles and resp...
NREMT recertification || Already Graded A+.
EMT (basic) level of training correct answers Provide basic, immediate care including bleeding
control, CPR, AED, and emergency childbirth. Advanced oxygen and ventilation skills, pulse
oximetry, noninvasive blood pressure monitoring, and administration of certain medications.
EMT roles and responsibilities correct answers Equipment preparedness
Emergency vehicle operations
Establish and maintain scene safety
Patient assessment and treatment
Lifting and moving
Strong verbal and written communication skills
Patient advocacy
Professional development
Quality improvement
Illness and injury prevention
Maintain certification/licensure
Transfer of patient care correct answers The movement of the patient from one stretcher to
another and providing all necessary information to allow continuity of care.
What is always the top priority? correct answers The EMT's first priority is always his or her
own safety. Once the EMT is safe then they can worry about other people's safety.
Acute stress correct answers Immediate physical and psychological reaction to a specific event
triggering the body's fight or flight response.
Delayed stress correct answers A stress reaction that develops after the stressful event. It does
not interfere with the EMT's ability to perform during the stressful event. PTSD is an example.
Cumulative stress correct answers Exposure to stressful situations over a prolonged period of
time leading to burnout.
Five stages of grief correct answers 1. Denial: the "not me" stage
2. Anger: the "why me" stage
3. Bargaining: the "but I still need to.." stage
4. Depression: the state of despair stage
5. Acceptance: accepting death
Minimum PPE correct answers minimum personal protective equipment: gloves and eye
protection should be used during any patient contact situation.
Expanded PPE correct answers Use disposable gown and mask for significant contact with any
body fluid- for example during childbirth. Use a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) mask or
N-95 respirator for suspected airborne disease exposure, such as TB.
,Biohazard bags correct answers Contaminated medical waste (bloody gause) and exposed of
according to medical guidelines.
Sharps container correct answers Sharps (needles, lancets) are placed i designated puncture proof
containers. Sharps should not be recapped before placing in an approved sharps container.
Hazardous material incident correct answers 1. maintain a safe distance
2. Call for specially trained HAZMAT responders.
3. Look for placards without entering the scene and utilize the emergency response guidebook to
determine evacuation distance.
4. Do not enter a HAZMAT scene until cleared by HAZMAT specialists.
5. Do not begin emergency care until patients have been decontaminated or otherwise cleared by
HAZMAT crew.
Crime scenes correct answers 1. Do not enter crime scene until PD has determined it is safe.
2. If responding to a crime scene wait a safe distance away for staging of PD.
Accident scene correct answers Extrication situation. Federal law requires EMS workers to wear
an approved highly reflective traffic safety vest when working on roadways, around traffic or at
an accident scene.
Hazardous situations requiring special training correct answers 1. downed power lines
2. fires
3. terrorism
4. high angle rescue (swift water, confined space)
Supine position correct answers
Prone position correct answers
Medical restraint correct answers 1. Last resort to restrain a patient.
2. Anticipate and plan: use PD
3. Use the minimum amount of restraint
4. secure in supine, use soft padded restraints.
Informed consent correct answers Patient must be informed of your care plan and associated
risks of accepting or refusing care and transport. Patient must be informed of and understand all
information that influence the decision of accepting or refusing care and transport.
Expressed consent correct answers Patient is alert and competent. Used to acquire consent for
basic procedures.
, Implied consent correct answers Assumption of consent from an unresponsive or incompetent
patient. Also used for someone who refused care but loses consciousness later
Minor consent correct answers Minors are not competent to accept or refuse care. Consent is
required from a parent or legal guardian. Not needed for emancipated minors. Implied consent is
also used for minors.
Involuntary consent correct answers Used for mentally incompetent adults or those in custody of
law enforcement. Consent must be obtained from the entity with the appropriate legal authority.
DNR correct answers Advanced directive
Do not resuscitate: they are specific to resuscitation efforts and do not affect treatment prior to
the patient entering cardiac arrest.
Living will correct answers They are broader than DNRs. They address healthcare wishes prior
to entering cardiac arrest. This may include use of advanced airways, ventilators, feeding tubes,
etc.
Good Samaritan law correct answers Designed to protect someone who renders care as long as
he or she is not being compensated and gross negligence is not committed.
What four factors must someone prove in order to sue for negligence correct answers 1. Duty to
act: EMT had an obligation to respond and provide care.
2. Breech of duty: EMT fails to assess, treat, or transport patient according to the standard of
care.
3. Damage: The plaintiff sustained injury worthy of compensation.
4. Causation: the injury was due to EMT's breach of duty.
Gross negligence correct answers Involves an indifference to and a violation of a legal
responsibility. Reckless patient care that is clearly dangerous to the patient is grossly negligent.
This results in civil/criminal charges.
Abandonment correct answers Once care is initiated EMS providers cannot terminate care
without the patient's consent. Sometimes requires direct contact with medical direction prior to
terminating care.
Abandonment is also the termination of care without transferring the patient to an equal or higher
medical authority.
False imprisonment correct answers Guilty of false imprisonment if you transport a competent
patient without consent.
Four factors of competency correct answers 1. Person: they know their name
2. Place: know where they are
3. Time: aware of date and time
4. Event: aware of present circumstances
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