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EFMB 2022 Pre Test Questions and Answers Graded A+ The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine Anterior Posterior (AP) chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n) __________. portable x-ray machine T/F: Computed Tomography scanning ...

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  • August 4, 2024
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  • 2024/2025
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  • efmb 2022 pre test questions and answers graded a
  • the initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma pa
  • tf computed tomography scanning has been largely
  • what is the lowest level of care equipped with a p

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EFMB 2022 Pre Test Questions and Answers
Graded A+
The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine Anterior
Posterior (AP) chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n)
__________. - answer portable x-ray machine

T/F: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by cervical spine
radiographic evaluation (CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE is
unavailable. - answer False

What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography scanner? -
answer Role 3

What is the lowest level of care equipped with a portable x-ray machine? - answer
Role 2

Members of the trauma team should have __________ aprons and thyroid shields
available near the trauma bay for radiation safety. - answer lead

Distance is also protective from radiation exposure. If feasible based on the patient's
condition, any personnel without lead shielding should move a short distance away from
the x-ray unit. The recommended minimal distance is __ - answer 6 Feet

While the FAST scan has been validated only in hemodynamically unstable blunt
trauma patients, it has become a standard tool in the trauma bay and Emergency
Department (ED) in most trauma patients. FAST stands for _________ - answer
Focused Abdominal Sonographic Assessment for Trauma

FAST in combat trauma has a sensitivity of only 56% and specificity of_. - answer
98%

T/F: The FAST exam remains the most sensitive test for hollow viscus injury and
mesenteric injury. - answer FALSE

T/F: At the Role 3, properly trained providers including radiologists, surgeons, and
emergency physicians, can perform and interpret FAST scans in the emergency
department on a hand held portable device. - answer TRUE

A FAST examination is performed with a portable hand-held machine most commonly
using a standard 3-7 MHz curved array _______ probe. - answer US

,The standard FAST examination is focused on evaluating for the presence of ______ in
certain areas of the body. - answer free intraperitoneal fluid

When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the right upper
quadrant. You are inspecting between which two organs? - answer liver and kidney

14. When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the left upper
quadrant. You are inspecting between which two organs? - answer spleen and
kidney

An 18g ______ IV is typically desired for Computed Tomography IV access. - answer
antecubital

T/F: The goal of Computed Tomography contrast injection is to provide concurrent solid
organ enhancement, arterial enhancement, and pulmonary arterial. - answer TRUE

T/F: When performing Computed Tomography scan on a Military Working Dog, utilize a
scanning protocol based on the adult settings to include the doses of and rates of
contrast administration. - answer FALSEF

T/F: All patients evacuated through casualty evacuation should have images sent
electronically ahead of time as well as have a CD created to send with the patient as a
backup. - answer TRUE

T/F: Magnetic Resonance Imaging is widely used in theater, as its utility in the acute
management of combat trauma was extensively establishment during Operation
Enduring Freedom. - answer FALSE

All trauma patients arriving at a Role _ will receive proper and expeditious radiologic
screening of injuries. - answer 3

T/F: Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma. - answer
FALSE

The symptoms of acoustic trauma are: - answer - hearing loss
- tinnitus (ringing in the ear)
- aural fullness
- recruitment (ear pain with loud noise)
- difficulty localizing sounds
- difficulty hearing in a noisy background
- vertigo.

Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is either ___ or
___. - answer temporary (temporary threshold shift, TTS) or permanent (permanent
threshold shift, PTS)

,The ear, specifically the ______ , is the most sensitive organ to primary blast injury. -
answer tympanic membrane (TM)

T/F: The smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater the
likelihood is of spontaneous closure. - answer TRUE

The majority of tympanic membrane perforations that close spontaneously do so within
the first _____ after injury. - answer 8 weeks

Acute management of intratemporal facial nerve injury is to provide objective
documentation of facial movement using the ______ scale. - answer House-
Brackmann grading

T/F: For significant facial pareses/paralyses, early administration of steroids must
always be provided regardless of contraindications. - answer FALSE

Which inner ear abnormalities may cause vertigo? - answer - otic capsule violating
temporal bone fractures
- secondary infections of the inner ear or vestibular nerves, trauma induced
endolymphatic hydrops
- activation of subclinical superior semicircular canal dehiscence.

All Service Members that develop symptoms consistent with noise trauma (acute
tinnitus, muffled hearing, fullness in the ear) should: - answer be educated and
directed to self-report for evaluation and possible treatment as soon as practicable

What is the best course of action if you find debris in the external auditory canal or in
the middle ear? - answer Treat the patient with a fluoroquinolone and steroid
containing topical antibiotic (e.g., four (4) drops of ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone or
ofloxacin in the affected ear three (3) times a day for seven (7) days).

Hearing loss that persists _ hours after acoustic trauma warrants a hearing test or
audiogram. - answer 72

T/F: Vestibular trauma to the inner ear may manifest in vertigo. - answer TRUE

All patients with subjective hearing loss and tinnitus following blast exposure should: -
answer - have the exposure documented
- should be evaluated by hearing testing as soon as possible.

Patients with TTS greater than ___ losses in three consecutive frequencies should be
considered candidates for high dose oral and/or transtympanic steroid injections when
not otherwise contraindicated. - answer 25 dB

What are indications for endotracheal intubation during your initial burn survey? -
answer - comatose patient

, - symptomatic inhalation injury
- deep facial burns
- burns over 40% Total Body Surface Area (TBSA).

Burn casualties with injuries greater than_ Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) are at high
risk of hypothermia. - answer 20%

T/F: When providing point of injury care to a burn patient, you must immediately debride
blisters and cover burns with loose, moist gauze wraps or a wet clean sheet. - answer
FALSE

Calculate a burn patient's initial burn size using the Rule of __. - answer Nines

Which type of burn is NOT included in the estimation of Total Body Surface Area
(TBSA) used for fluid resuscitation? - answer Superficial (1st degree) burn

Which classification of burns are moist and sensate, blister, and blanch? - answer
Partial thickness burns (2nd degree)

Which classification of burns appear red, do not blister, and blanch readily? - answer
Superficial burns (1st degree)

Which classification of burns appear leathery, dry, non-blanching, are insensate, and
often contain thrombosed vessels? - answer Full thickness burns (3rd degree)

What is the Rule of 1Os burn fluid resuscitation equation? Ensure you can apply it. -
answer 10 mL/hr x %TBSA

For children suffering burn injuries, _ x Total Body Surface Area {TBSA) x body weight
in kg gives the volume for the first 24 hrs of fluid resuscitation. - answer 3

T/F: A hypotonic solution is the preferred resuscitation fluid for a burn patient. - answer
FALSE

T/F: Both under- and over- fluid resuscitation of burn patients can result in serious
morbidity and even mortality; patients who receive over 250 ml/kg in the first 24 hours
are at increased risk for severe complications including acute respiratory distress
syndrome and both abdominal and extremity compartment syndromes. - answer
TRUE

At 8-12 hours post-burn, if the hourly IV fluid rate exceeds 1500 ml/hr or if the projected
24 hr total fluid volume approaches 250 ml/kg, initiate 5% _____ infusion for an adult
burn patient. - answer albumin infusion

What are clinical signs of inhalation injury? - answer - progressive voice changes
- soot about the mouth and nares

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