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Ch 52 Women-s Reproductive Health Questions &Exam (elaborations) answers 100% satisfaction guarantee
Ch 52 Women-s Reproductive Health Questions &Exam (elaborations) answers 100% satisfaction guarantee
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STUVIA 2024/2025Ch 52: Women's Reproductive Health
A 30-year-old woman describes having periods every 30 days, lasting 8 days, with heavy
bleeding. The nurse understands that these are signs of which condition?
a. Menometrorrhagia
b. Menorrhagia
c. Menorrhea
d. Metrorrhagia - ✔✔ANS: B
Menorrhagia is defined as regular uterine bleeding lasting more than 7 days with heavy bleeding.
Metrorrhagia is irregular uterine bleeding lasting more than 7 days with heavy bleeding. Menorrhea is
normal uterine bleeding. Menometrorrhagia is a combination of menorrhagia and metrorrhagia.
A 35-year-old woman asks the nurse about oral contraceptives. The nurse learns that the patient
smokes and has a family history of venous thromboembolism (VTE). The nurse will suggest that the
patient:
a. discuss a progestin-only oral contraceptive with her provider.
b. may want to consider having a tubal ligation.
c. use a transdermal contraceptive product.
d. will not be a candidate for oral contraceptive products. - ✔✔ANS: A
%
Patients who smoke or who have an increased risk of VTE may be candidates for progestin-only
products. A 35-year-old woman may still want children in the future, so recommending a tubal ligation
is not indicated. Transdermal products contain estrogen and carry the same risks as COCs.
A 45-year-old woman reports cessation of menses for the past 6 months and asks the nurse if she
needs to continue using contraception. The nurse will tell her:
a. that she may discontinue using contraception.
b. that she most likely has premature ovarian failure.
c. to begin hormone therapy to prevent menopausal symptoms.
d. to continue using contraception for at least 6 more months. - ✔✔ANS: D
Women should use contraception until menstruation has ceased for 1 year if they do not wish to
become pregnant. Premature ovarian failure occurs when menstruation stops before age 40 years. It
is not necessary to treat menopausal symptoms until they occur.
A 45-year-old woman who has not had a period for 15 months reports severe hot flashes and poor
sleep. The nurse reviews information about hormone replacement therapy and tells this woman that
hormone therapy:
a. is very safe and may be used freely to treat menopausal symptoms.
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, STUVIA 2024/2025
b. may be used indefinitely to treat menopausal symptoms.
c. should be used at the lowest dose possible for less than 5 years.
d. will be necessary to prevent osteoporosis caused by estrogen depletion. - ✔✔ANS: C
Women should use hormone therapy at the lowest dose possible for a period of less than 5 years. It
carries risks for breast cancer and cardiovascular disease and cannot be used indefinitely. Hormone
therapy can help slow osteoporosis, but it does not prevent osteoporosis and is not recommended for
this use.
A woman comes to the clinic for a Depo-Provera injection. The nurse reviews her medical record and
notes that it has been 100 days since her last injection. What action will the nurse
perform?
a. Administer Depo-Provera 150 mg IM
b. Give Depo-Provera 300 mg IM
c. Perform a pregnancy test
d. Suggest she wait until she has had a period. - ✔✔ANS: C
Women should receive depot medroxyprogesterone (Depo-Provera) injections every 13 weeks.
Patients who are late for injections (13 weeks plus 1 day) will need to rule out pregnancy before
receiving the next injection. Patients who are eligible receive 150 mg IM. It is not correct to give a
%
higher dose.
A woman is diagnosed with polycystic ovarian disease (PCOS) after being unable to conceive. Her
provider has ordered metformin (Glucophage) and clomiphene citrate (Clomid). The nurse will explain
that metformin is given for which purpose?
a. To increase androgen levels
b. To induce ovulation
c. To promote a dominant follicle
d. To regulate menstrual periods - ✔✔ANS: D
Metformin decreases androgen levels, which helps to regulate periods and promote ovulation. It does
not induce ovulation per se, but increases the possibility of ovulation by its antiandrogenic effects.
Metformin should not be used specifically for ovulation induction. Clomiphene citrate promotes a
dominant follicle.
A woman is taking a combination oral contraceptive and asks the nurse why progestin is necessary.
The nurse will explain that progestin helps prevent pregnancy by which method?
a. Altering the quantity and viscosity of cervical mucus
b. Inhibiting proliferative and secretory changes in the endometrium
c. Increasing motility of muscles and cilia in the fallopian tubes
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