Exam (elaborations)
FNP FINAL REVIEW TEST
- Course
- Institution
FNP FINAL REVIEW TEST
[Show more]
Content preview
FNP FINAL REVIEW TESTA 45-year-old man who reports a pressing, nonpulsatile headache that is greatest in
severity upon awakening each morning and lessens as the day progresses. Is what type
of headache, or what is it related to? - answer- Increased intracranial pressure
When counseling a patient with hypertension and/or dyslipidemia on recommended
physical activity, all of the following are appropriate goals to strive for except:
- Aerobic physical activity (e.g., brisk walking) for a total of 90-150 minutes per week
- Exercise of at least 3 to 4 times per week.
- Achieving a peak heart rate of 150 BPM or greater.
- No more than 48 hours without exercise. - answer- Achieving a peak heart rate of 150
BPM or greater.
When a patient is seen by a nurse practitioner, the visit can be charged to Medicare
using "incident-to" billing. If the criteria for this type of visit are fulfilled, then anticipated
reimbursement is at what percentage of the physician rate? - answer- 100%
When initiating pharmacologic therapy for the patient with first diagnosis of major
depression disorder, the nurse practitioner advises the patient that treatment should:
- Generally be given for about 4-6 months before improvement is noted.
- Continue for at least 4-5 months after remission is achieved.
- Be continued indefinitely after therapeutic goals are met.
- Be started at a higher dose then titrated to a lower dose once symptom relief is
achieved. - answer- Continue for at least 4-5 months after remission is achieved.
Beneficence is defined as - answer- The obligation of the healthcare provider to help
people in need.
An appropriate treatment option for community-acquired pneumonia in a 45-year-old
woman with no significant comorbidities, no recent history of systemic antimicrobial use
(>3 months), no known drug allergies, and a history of hysterectomy 3 years ago is:
- Ampicillin.
- Doxycycline (Doryx®).
- Cefuroxime (Ceftin®).
- Moxifloxacin (Avelox® - answer- Doxycycline
Gary is a 26-year-old graduate student who is diagnosed with major depressive disorder
(MDD) without psychotic features. His medical history is unremarkable and he states
that he does not wish to undergo psychotherapy. An appropriate first-line medication is:
- Sertraline (Zoloft®).
- Risperidone (Risperdal®)
- Amitriptyline (Elavil®).
- Trazodone (Oleptro®). - answer- Sertraline (Zoloft)
,A patient with newly-diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus who has an A1C=8.2% will
most likely begin therapy with a medication from which of the following drug classes?
- GLP-1 agonist such as exenatide
- DPP-4 inhibitor such as saxagliptin
- Thiazolidinedione such as pioglitazone
- Biguanide such as metformin - answer- Biguanide such as metformin
You are examining a 21-year-old man who is seeking a sports clearance physical
examination. He is generally healthy with an unremarkable medical history. During
cardiovascular examination, you identify a physiologic split S2 and realize that this:
- Is usually first noticed in early adulthood.
- Can progress to a pathologic condition during adulthood.
- Will be more pronounced with inspiration.
- Is associated with S4 heart sound. - answer- Will be more pronounced with inspiration.
A prostate cancer lesion detectable by digital rectal examination will likely be described
as:
- A hard, immobile induration.
- A bilateral enlargement.
- A painful flocculent lesion.
- A rubbery gland with central depression. - answer- A hard, immobile induration.
Actinic keratoses can be described as:
- Hyperpigmented macules on sun-exposed areas.
- Vesicular lesions along a dermatomal distribution.
- Ulcerating lesions in groin folds.
- Slightly rough, pink or flesh-colored lesions on the face. - answer- Slightly rough, pink
or flesh-colored lesions on the face.
Actinic keratosis can be a precursor to:
- Malignant melanoma.
- Acanthosis nigricans.
- Basal cell carcinoma.
- Squamous cell carcinoma. - answer- Squamous cell carcinoma
An 18-year-old male presents with profound scrotal pain. Which of the following findings
supports a diagnosis of testicular torsion?
- Positive Prehn's sign
- High fever
- Profound neutrophilia
- Loss of the cremasteric reflex - answer- Loss of the cremasteric reflex
CPT is an acronym for:
- Clinical Practice Template.
- Current Procedural Terminology
- Current Practice Terms.
, - Clinical Procedural Testing - answer- Current Procedural Terminology
Gastroparesis is a contraindication to the use of which of the following medications in
type 2 diabetes mellitus?
- Exenatide (Byetta®)
- Pioglitazone (Actos®)
- Sitagliptin (Januvia®)
- Glyburide (Glynase®) - answer- Exenatide (Byetta®)
Managed care is best defined as a:
- Collaborative approach to provide coordination of the healthcare services to a defined
population.
- System for determining what healthcare services are reimbursable.
- Process of reviewing the appropriateness of select healthcare interventions.
- Method of review to ensure adherence to evidence-based practice. - answer-
Collaborative approach to provide coordination of the healthcare services to a defined
population.
Meeting the eligibility requirements for national NP certification signifies that the nurse
practitioner:
- Attained the required academic and clinical skills for specialty practice.
- Graduated from an accredited nurse practitioner educational program.
- Has achieved select prerequisites determined by a nongovernmental professional
organization
- Has permission to practice as a nurse practitioner. - answer- Has achieved select
prerequisites determined by a nongovernmental professional organization
Metformin is contraindicated in the patient with a GFR <45 mL/min/1.73 m2 because of
the risk of:
- Hypokalemia.
- Worsening renal function.
- Hypocalcemia.
- Lactic acidosis. - answer- Lactic acidoses
A 38-year-old woman reports having 3-5 migraine episodes each month that can last 1-
3 days. Her medical history is otherwise unremarkable other than bilateral tubal ligation
(BTL) 6 years ago. She asks if there is any medication that can help to prevent these
migraines. An appropriate prophylactic treatment options to offer this patient is:
- Ergotamine (Ergomar®).
- Sumatriptan (Imitrex®).
- Topiramate (Topamax®).
- Verapamil (Verelan). - answer- Topiramate (Topamax®).
Radiographic assessment of a patient with early osteoarthritis will most likely reveal:
- Soft tissue swelling.
- Involvement of the metacarpals.
The benefits of buying summaries with Stuvia:
Guaranteed quality through customer reviews
Stuvia customers have reviewed more than 700,000 summaries. This how you know that you are buying the best documents.
Quick and easy check-out
You can quickly pay through credit card or Stuvia-credit for the summaries. There is no membership needed.
Focus on what matters
Your fellow students write the study notes themselves, which is why the documents are always reliable and up-to-date. This ensures you quickly get to the core!
Frequently asked questions
What do I get when I buy this document?
You get a PDF, available immediately after your purchase. The purchased document is accessible anytime, anywhere and indefinitely through your profile.
Satisfaction guarantee: how does it work?
Our satisfaction guarantee ensures that you always find a study document that suits you well. You fill out a form, and our customer service team takes care of the rest.
Who am I buying these notes from?
Stuvia is a marketplace, so you are not buying this document from us, but from seller GEEKA. Stuvia facilitates payment to the seller.
Will I be stuck with a subscription?
No, you only buy these notes for $12.49. You're not tied to anything after your purchase.
Can Stuvia be trusted?
4.6 stars on Google & Trustpilot (+1000 reviews)
81989 documents were sold in the last 30 days
Founded in 2010, the go-to place to buy study notes for 14 years now