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LEIK FNP Practice Questions with 100% Verified Correct Answers

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LEIK FNP Practice Questions with 100% Verified Correct Answers 124. Which of the following viral infections is associated with occasional abnormal forms of lymphocytes during an acute infection? A) Cytomegalovirus (CMV) B) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) C) Human papilloma virus (HPV) D) Coxsackie ...

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  • August 18, 2024
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LEIK FNP Practice Questions with 100% Verified
Correct Answers
124. Which of the following viral infections is associated with occasional abnormal forms of
lymphocytes during an acute infection?



A) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

B) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

C) Human papilloma virus (HPV)

D) Coxsackie virus - Correct Answer B) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)



A test for an acute infection of the Epstein-Barr virus will show abnormal forms of lymphocytes.



2. All of the following are infections that affect mostly the labia and vagina except:



A) Bacterialvaginosis

B) Candidiasis

C) Trichomoniasis

D) Chlamydia trachomatis - Correct Answer D) Chlamydia trachomatis



Infections that commonly affect the labia and vagina include bacterial vaginosis, candidiasis, and
trichomoniasis. Chlamydia trachomatis commonly affects the cervix, endometrial lining , fallopian
tubes, and pelvic cavity.



411. Which of the following is the most common cause of nongonococcal urethritis?



A) Escherichia coli

B) Chlamydia trachomatis

C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

D) Mycoplasma - Correct Answer B) Chlamydia trachomatis



The most common cause of nongonococcal urethritis is Chlamydia trachomatis.

,A 10-year-old boy complains of a sudden onset of scrotal pain when he woke up that morning. He is
also complaining of severe nausea and vomiting. During the physical examination, the nurse
practitioner finds a tender, warm, and swollen left scrotum. The cremasteric reflex is negative and
the urine dipstick is negative for leukocytes, nitrites, and blood. The most likely diagnosis is:



A) Acute epididymitis

B) A severe salmonella infection

C) Testicular torsion

D) Acute orchitis - Correct Answer C) Testicular torsion




Testicular torsion signs and symptoms include sudden onset of unilateral scrotal pain, nausea,
vomiting, and abdominal pain. Acute epididymitis causes fever, chills, nausea, and unilateral pain and
is most com- monly seen in sexually active men. Unilateral scrotal pain does not occur with
Salmonella infection. Acute orchitis is often based on having a recent mumps infec- tion or parotitis
with testicular edema.



A 10-year-old male who was recently accepted into his school's soccer team has a history of exercise-
induced asthma. The child wants to know when he should take his albuterol inhaler. The nurse
practitioner would advise the patient:



A) Premedicate himself 20 minutes prior to starting exercise

B) Wait until he starts to exercise before using the inhaler

C) Premedicate 60 minutes before starting exercise

D) Wait until he finishes his exercise before using his inhaler - Correct Answer A) Premedicate himself
20 minutes prior to starting exercise




Exercise-induced asthma is best controlled by using the Proventil inhaler (bronchodilator)
approximately 20 minutes prior to exercise, to prevent vasospasm of the bronchioles and shortness
of breath with exercise. These bronchodilators usually last approximately 4 hours. They also work
quickly to open up the bronchioles if an acute attack/shortness of breath occurs



A 12-year-old girl is complaining of a 2-week history of facial pressure that worsens when she bends
over. She complains of tooth pain in her upper molars on the right side of her face. On physical exam,
her lung and heart sounds are normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

,A) An acute dental abscess

B) Chronic sinusitis

C) Acute sinusitis

D) Severe allergic rhinitis - Correct Answer C) Acute sinusitis




Signs/symptoms of acute sinusitis includes headache, facial pain that worsens with bending over,
eye/ear pressure and pain, aching in upper jaw/teeth, reduced smell and taste, cough (especially at
night due to the nasal drainage), sore throat, bad breath, and fatigue.



A 12-year-old male's peak expiratory flow results indicate 60 to 80% of the predicted range. How
would you classify his asthma?



A) Mild intermittent asthma

B) Mild persistent asthma

C) Moderate persistent asthma

D) Severe asthma - Correct Answer C) Moderate persistent asthma



Asthma classifications: Intermittent: normal FEV between exacerbations, FEV > 80%; mild persistent,
FEV > 80%; moderate persistent, FEV 60-80%; severe persistent, FEV < 60%.



A 13-year-old adolescent female is brought in by her mother for a sports physical. The mother
reports that the teen's last vaccines were given at the age of 6 years. Which of the following vaccines
is recommended by the CDC for this patient?



A) Td and HPV vaccines

B) Tdap, MCV4, and the HPV vaccines

C) DTap and the flu vaccine

D) DT and MCV4 vaccines - Correct Answer B) Tdap, MCV4, and the HPV vaccines

, Vaccine questions usually are not this complicated, but there are several lessons that can be learned
with this question. The 2012 CDC recommendations for the ages 13 to 18 years are the Tdap catch-up
(if did not receive at age 11-12 years), HPV or Gardasil catch-up (if did not receive at age 11-12
years), and the MCV4 or meningococcal conjugate vaccine (Menactra). Only one dose of Tdap is
recommended (lifetime). Thereafter, the Td form of the vaccine is indicated every 10 years.



A 13-year-old boy wants to be treated for his acne. He has a large number of closed and open
comedones on his face. The patient has been treating himself with OTC benzoyl peroxide and salicylic
acid topical products. Which of the following would be recommended next?



A) Retinoic acid (Accutane)

B) Tetracycline

C) Retin A 0.25% gel

D) Wash face carefully with medicated soap at bedtime - Correct Answer C) Retin A 0.25% gel




Topical agents are the first-line treatment for acne vulgaris. Retin A 0.25% gel would be the next step.
Oral preparations would then be offered for the next step (tetracycline), and Accutane would be the
final step of therapy.



A 13-year-old male is brought in by his mother for a physical exam. During the genital exam, the
nurse practitioner notices that the patient is at Tanner Stage II. Which of the following is the best
description of this Tanner stage?



A) The penis is growing more in length than in width and the testicles become larger with darker
scrotal skin and the pubic hair is starting to curl

B) The penis is growing more in width than in length with darker scrotal skin and more numerous
pubic hairs that are darker, curly, and coarser

C) The testicles become larger and the skin of the scrotum starts to become darker with straight,
fine, countable hairs on the genitals and the axilla

D) The testicles, penile width and length are all developing quickly - Correct Answer C) The testicles
become larger and the skin of the scrotum starts to become darker with straight, fine, countable
hairs on the genitals and the axilla

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