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REx-PN Practice Exam questions with correct answers 2024/2025
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REx-PN Practice Exam questions with correct answers 2024/2025
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REx-PN Practice ExamA child has been diagnosed with Type I diabetes mellitus. The nurse is reading this child's
endocrinologist prescription, indicating the appropriate administration of insulin. Which of the
following insulin regimen is best for children with diabetes mellitus?
A. The dose is dependent solely on age
B. Rapid-acting insulin must be injected intramuscularly two times a day
C. The dose is administered in the vastus lateralis muscle
D. The dose is determined individually - ANSAnswer: D. The dose is determined individually
Currently, there is a recommendation for the individual treatment of diabetes mellitus. Each
client has a unique genetic makeup, meaning different people are likely to respond differently to
the same drug regimen. For some, it may be effective, while for others, it may not be as
beneficial.
Although age does play a factor in insulin dosing, it is not the sole factor—other factors include
weight, blood glucose levels, activity levels, lifestyle, diet, etc.
It is also common to mix different types of insulins to get the best results. Short-acting insulin
has a quick onset of action, a duration of only a couple of hours, and can be administered
multiple times per day.
Long-acting insulin has a slower onset of action, a duration of up to 24 hours, and is usually
administered once daily. The regime, including the type and frequency of insulin administration,
depends on the client's blood glucose levels.
A client arrives to the ER with a blood glucose of 32 mmol/L. What are the 3 polys of Type
diabetes mellitus?
A. Polyuria, polyopia, polycystic
B. Polydipsia, polyphagia, polyarthritis
C. Polyphagia, polyuria, polydipsia
D. Polyuria, polycythemia, polyarthritis - ANSPolyphagia, polyuria, polydipsia
Type I diabetes mellitus (DM) develops when the body can no longer produce insulin due to the
destruction of beta cells of the pancreas responsible for insulin production. Lack of insulin
production leads to poor control of blood glucose levels. Polyphagia, polyuria, and polydipsia
are known as the cardinal signs of diabetes. They develop faster in clients with type I DM.
Polydipsia refers to increased thirst caused by high blood sugar levels that make the blood more
concentrated.
Polyuria is the medical term for increased frequency of urination and passage of high volumes
of urine, followed by the excess intake of fluids.
Polyphagia refers to increased appetite which occurs because of excess loss of glucose in the
urine, making the body crave food.
,Which of the following drugs is the most effective when it comes to easing the symptoms of
osteoarthritis?
A. Acyclovir
B. Baclofen
C. Acetaminophen
D. Diclofenac - ANSAnswer: D. Diclofenac
Diclofenac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used to treat generalized pain,
rheumatoid arthritis, dysmenorrhea, and osteoarthritis. It works by inhibiting the activity of
COX-1 and COX-2, which are responsible for the production of lipid compounds that are
essential in pain response and inflammation.
Acyclovir is an antiviral drug. Baclofen is a skeletal muscle relaxant drug. Acetaminophen is an
analgesic and antipyretic drug.
Which statement about the treatment of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection is true?
A. Treatment is difficult because antivirals are unsafe for the population
B. Asymptomatic individuals do not need to be treated
C. Treatment for HIV varies for each client
D. Only one drug is required to treat all clients with HIV - ANSAnswer: C. Treatment for HIV
varies for each client
HIV is also known as the human immunodeficiency virus. Failure to treat infection due to this
virus can develop autoimmune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) which is a life-threatening condition.
Symptoms include fever, swollen lymph nodes, fatigue, and weight loss. The treatment for HIV
is called antiretroviral (ARV) therapy. It involves the use of a combination of antiviral drugs. The
specifications of the drug therapy for HIV are different for each individual because the treatment
is supposed to blend in with other medications that the client must take, which depends on
many factors such as comorbidities, nutrition, and immune status.
The answer option A is incorrect because many antiviral drugs work well. The answer option B
is also wrong because even asymptomatic clients with HIV require treatment. Treating HIV
starting from the early stages is better since it may help reduce the mortality rate. The answer
option D is also incorrect because the treatment usually involves a combination of antiviral
drugs
A client will be undergoing day surgery. The nurse told him to hold his daily aspirin for three
days before the surgery. What is the rationale for this direction?
A. It has anti-inflammatory effects
B. It has antithrombotic effects
C. It has analgesic effects
D. It has antipyretic effects - ANSAnswer: B. It has antithrombotic effects
Aspirin is a drug used to treat pain, fever, and inflammation. It also has an antithrombotic effect
which means it may interfere with clot formation. Thus, clients scheduled for surgery are told not
,to take this drug as early as seven days before the procedure since this may cause excessive
bleeding and harm the client.
What system would be a priority to assess on a client taking fluticasone/salmeterol (Advair)?
A. Circulatory system
B. Hepatobiliary system
C. Respiratory system
D. Neurological System - ANSAnswer: 3. Respiratory system
Advair is a medication containing fluticasone (a corticosteroid) and salmeterol (a B2 adrenergic
receptor agonist that promotes bronchodilation). These two drugs are used in combination when
treating symptoms of asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Since this drug is on
the client's chart, the client most probably has one of these respiratory problems; thus, the nurse
must prioritize his respiratory system during the assessment.
A psychiatrist prescribed fluoxetine to a client who was diagnosed with depression. What are
the side effects of this drug?
A. Weight changes, nausea, diarrhea
B. Sensitivity to light, convulsions, swelling of the limbs, high blood sugar
C. Postprandial hypotension and dizziness
D. Tachycardia, immunosuppression, fever - ANSAnswer: A. Weight changes, nausea, diarrhea
Fluoxetine, sold under the brand name Prozac or Sarafem, is classified as a selective serotonin
reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). It treats psychiatric conditions such as depression, bulimia nervosa,
and obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Its side effects include decreased libido, mouth
dryness, weight changes, and gastrointestinal problems such as diarrhea and nausea.
Fluoxetine causes gastrointestinal symptoms since it leads to increased serotonin levels, which
stimulate receptors in the nervous system and the gastrointestinal tract. Alterations may bring
about weight changes in appetite, which is also another side effect of the mechanism of action
of SSRIs.
Which side effects of Phenytoin can occur when taking the incorrect dose?
A. Abnormal heart rhythm
B. Vertigo, weakness, nausea and vomiting, unsteady gait
C. Grey mucous membranes
D. Bulimia nervosa - ANSAnswer: B. Vertigo, weakness, nausea and vomiting, unsteady gait
Phenytoin is anticonvulsant drug. It is often used in clients with complex partial seizures, grand
mal seizures, and postoperative seizures.
Like most drugs, Phenytoin can also produce unwanted effects in the body when used too often
or too much. Self-medication administration, improper use of the drug, and drug interactions are
three major causes of phenytoin intoxication. The most common symptoms of phenytoin
, intoxication include dizziness, nausea, vomiting, generalized weakness, unsteady gait, and
drowsiness. The serum phenytoin levels must be checked to confirm phenytoin intoxication.
What should the nurse expect to see in a client who is on long-term use of Prednisone?
A. Swelling of the limbs
B. Buffalo hump
C. Yellowing of the skin
D. Hypertrophy of the muscles - ANSAnswer: B. Buffalo hump
Prednisone is a glucocorticoid used to treat various conditions, including adrenal insufficiency,
Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis, and anterior uveitis.
Receiving large amounts of this medication may result in the development of Cushing's
syndrome. Symptoms of this condition include purplish stretch marks, acne, moon facies, and
buffalo hump. Buffalo hump refers to the accumulation of fat between the neck and the
shoulders.
A client was diagnosed with depression and prescribed extended-release trazodone (150 mg at
bedtime). What is the side effect of trazadone?
A. Sleepiness
B. Pain in the joints
C. Acne breakouts
D. Stuffiness of the nose - ANSAnswer: A. Sleepiness
Trazodone is a serotonin modulator used in the treatment of depression and post-traumatic
stress disorder. It is a serotonin-2 receptor antagonist; thus, it helps in reducing sleep onset
latency and promotes slow-wave sleep. In addition, it can also block H1 receptors, a mechanism
that also contributes to its ability to improve sleep.
A client who recently suffered a heart attack received a low dose of aspirin in the clinic. Which
best explains the reason for prescribing a low dose?
A. High dose aspirin will make it difficult for the client to fall asleep
B. High dose aspirin may increase the client's risk of bleeding
C. High dose aspirin may cause heartburn
D. High dose aspirin may cause the client to have another heart attack - ANSAnswer: B. High
dose aspirin may increase the client's risk of bleeding
Aspirin is a drug with anti-inflammatory and antipyretic effects. It is commonly given to clients
who have recently suffered from a heart attack as it helps prevent the reoccurrence. However,
like all ASAs, aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding in a client as it allows the blood to be less
sticky by altering the clotting factors to be disrupted.
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