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WGU D115 EXAM LATEST COMPLETE 410 QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS JUST RELEASED.
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WGU D115 EXAM LATEST COMPLETE 410 QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS JUST RELEASED.
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Page 1 of 155WGU D115 EXAM LATEST 2024-2025 COMPLETE 410
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS JUST
RELEASED
Hannah had a _______ response to meningococcus, which took longer to produce antibodies
than Charlotte's _________ response. - ANSWER-Hannah had a primary response to
meningococcus, which took longer to produce antibodies than Charlotte's secondary response.
This was the first time her body was exposed to the bacteria. Charlotte had been exposed to
the bacteria when she had the vaccination, thus building immunization to the bacteria. The
vaccine prepares the body to respond to subsequent encounters with the same bacteria.
The ________ that phagocytosed bacteria in both teenagers presented antigens to _______
cells, which secreted cytokines. - ANSWER-The macrophages that phagocytosed bacteria in
both teenagers presented antigens to helper T cells, which secreted cytokines. Macrophages
work by eating or phagocytosing bacteria. Helper T cells are circulating and are activated as the
first response to a foreign pathogen.
Antibodies against meningococcus directly assisted ______ memory cells in destroying the
bacteria. - ANSWER-Antibodies against meningococcus directly assisted phagocytic memory
cells in destroying the bacteria. Phagocytic cells destroy bacteria through phagocytosis, which is
the process of eating or killing bacteria.
Charlotte had _________ B and T cells for meningococcus, but Hannah did not. - ANSWER-
Charlotte had memory B and T cells for meningococcus, but Hannah did not. Memory cells are
activated by recognizing repeat exposure to an antigen, and they do not actively destroy
bacteria. Only Charlotte had memory cells to the meningococcus because she is the only one
who was previously exposed through vaccination.
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering
the antigen? - ANSWER-Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize
something foreign.
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How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an ABO
incompatibility? - ANSWER-(Complement-mediated cell lysis) The complement pathway is
activated in response to blood incompatibility
Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - ANSWER-Ringworm, Candida,
Athlete's foot, and Aspergillus. Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes
dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to several skin mycoses, including ringworm and
athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect infection? -
ANSWER-(4-10 days) Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual transmission,
whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat testing
may be needed to rule out a false negative test due to testing too soon after exposure,
especially if a high likelihood of exposure is suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - ANSWER-Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing colon
cancer? - ANSWER-The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely studied and
have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most likely to
develop? - ANSWER-Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and lung lining
cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light? - ANSWER-UV light causes basal cell
carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit DNA strands, causing thymine
base pairs that are side by side to pair together, becoming thymine dimers. These thymine
dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
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Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? - ANSWER-Exercise-induced
myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure control and has
been shown to have adverse effects on health outcomes. - ANSWER-True. By providing patient
education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health outcomes may result.
One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to incorporate
research and evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood through university-level
education in a manner consistent with an individual's literacy level. - ANSWER-True, Ensuring
the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is crucial for understanding and
compliance.
What is a red flag for low healthcare literacy? - ANSWER-Low literacy often leads to perceived
noncompliance to medical instructions, including medication instructions. Ensuring the patient
fully understands all instructions is critical for understanding.
Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women with certain health histories.
Which health history would result in an amniocentesis recommendation? - ANSWER-
Amniocentesis is indicated for pregnant women who have a family history of genetic disorders
because it is performed to detect chromosome abnormalities, genetic disorders, and neural
tube defects.
Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of obesity.
What do these genes influence? - ANSWER-Metabolization of fat
Which concept is data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 black
Americans an example of? - ANSWER-Prevalence tells us how often disease is seen in a
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population, which includes all people with the disease at a given time, at any stage in the
disease progression.
What describes a chromosomal defect caused by Prader-Willi syndrome? - ANSWER-Prader-
Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of chromosome 15. Normally, a portion of
this chromosome is inherited from both parents. With Prader-Willi syndrome, the chromosome
inherited from the father is problematic.
Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process? - ANSWER-The inflammatory response
is a defense mechanism designed to remove damaged tissue so the body can heal.
Which leukocytes are elevated in response to acute inflammatory reactions when considering
white blood cell differentials? - ANSWER-Neutrophils are one of the first responders to acute
inflammation, and an increase in neutrophils demonstrates an acute inflammatory response.
Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the
antigen or after immunization against the antigen? - ANSWER-Active-acquired immunity or
naturally acquired active immunity occurs when an individual is exposed to a live pathogen and
develops the disease or becomes immune as a result of a vaccine.
Which characteristics do atopic individuals have that make them genetically predisposed to
develop allergies? - ANSWER-The greater quantities of IgE in atopic individuals make them
genetically predisposed to develop allergies. IgE mediates the immune response to allergens;
therefore, the more IgE one has, the stronger the response can be to an allergen. Think of it as
having more soldiers in the army to fight the war.
Types of genetic testing (carrier screening) and indications for use - ANSWER-1. Amniocentesis.
Amniocentesis is used to test for single gene disorders and neural tube defects, such as spina
bifida and ancephaly, via the withdrawal of amniotic fluid from the uterus at 16 weeks
gestation.
2. CVS. Chorionic villus sampling is used by extracting tissue from the chorion between 10 and
12 weeks gestation.
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