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NURS 620 Exam II Questions and Complete Solutions Graded A+
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NURS 620 Exam II Questions and Complete Solutions Graded A+
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NURS 620 Exam IIQuestions and
Complete Solutions
Graded A+
Denning [Date] [Course title]
, The most common cause of sepsis in older adults is: - Answer: UTI
What is the usual clinical presentation of an adult patient with cystitis? - Answer: Complaints of dysuria,
urgency, frequency, nocturia, and suprapubic heaviness. (not sure)
Which statement characterizes functional incontinence? - Answer: Mainly caused by factors outside the
urinary tract, especially immobility, that prohibit proper toileting habits.
What are the two most common pathogens in community-acquired UTIs? - Answer: Escherichia coli and
Proteus mirabilis
When prescribing oxybutinin (Ditropan) for the patient with overactive bladder symptoms, the nurse
practitioner must consider which
disorder in the medical history before prescribing? - Answer: Narrow-angle glaucoma
The clinical presentation of a client with urolithiasis would include: - Answer: Pain starting in the flank
and localizing in the costovertebral angle (not sure)
What is the most common cause of chronic renal failure (CRF)? - Answer: Hypertension* & Diabetes
The most frequent sign of bladder cancer is: - Answer: Hematuria
The inability to empty the bladder, resulting in overdistention and frequent loss of small amounts of
urine, describes which type of urinary incontinence? - Answer: Overflow incontinence
A factor contributing to stress incontinence is: - Answer: Bladder irritation from a urinary tract infection
(look up)
How quickly can acute tubular necrosis resolve (leading cause of ARF)? - Answer: 7-21 days with
appropriate treatment such as rehydration or discontinuing the offending drug.
Diagnostic of Prerenal Azotemia - Answer: increased BUN and Serum Creatinine
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