TEST BANK
Applied Anatomy and Physiology: An Interdisciplinary
Approach
Zerina Tomkins
1st Edition
,Table of Contents
Chapter 01 Cellular Response to Injury 1
Chapter 02 Genes and Genomics 6
Chapter 03 Integumentary System 12
Chapter 04 The Skeletal System 18
Chapter 05 Joints 23
Chapter 06 Muscular System 29
Chapter 07 Nervous System 34
Chapter 08 Understanding the Physiology of Pain 39
Chapter 09 Special Senses-Hearing, Balance and Vision 44
Chapter 10 Endocrine System 49
Chapter 11 Blood 55
Chapter 12 Haemostasis 60
Chapter 13 Cardiovascular System 65
Chapter 14 Lymphatic System and Tissue Fluid Balance Maintenance 71
Chapter 15 Immune System 76
Chapter 16 Acute Inflammation 81
Chapter 17 Respiratory System 86
Chapter 18 Gastrointestinal System 91
Chapter 19 Nutrition and Metabolism 96
Chapter 20 Urinary System 101
Chapter 21 Reproductive System 106
Chapter 22 Pregnancy and Lactation 111
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Test Bank - Applied Anatomy and Physiology: An Interdisciplinary Approach, 1st Edition (Tomkins, 2021)
Chapter 01: Cellular Response to Injury
Tomkins: Applied Anatomy & Physiology: An Interdisciplinary Approach, 1st Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Homeostasis refers to:
a. how atoms and molecules participate in chemical reactions.
b. how organic compounds build cell structures responsible for cell function.
c. a steady state inside cells and surroundings that favours optimal function.
d. alterations at the cellular level leading to disease.
ANS: C
Cells work constantly to achieve and maintain a steady state, or equilibrium, inside the cells
and surroundings that favours optimal cell function. This is known as homeostasis.
2. In a covalent bond:
a. electrons are transferred.
b. neutral molecules are attracted.
c. metallic atoms are attracted.
d. electrons are shared.
ANS: D
Covalent bonds are formed when two atoms share electrons. When two atoms share one pair
of electrons, this is called a single covalent bond. This is presented graphically by a single
line linking two atoms. When atoms share two pairs of electrons, this is known as a double
covalent bond.
3. A reaction that breaks a product down into simpler forms is referred to as:
a. a synthesis reaction.
b. a decomposition reaction.
c. an exchange reaction.
d. a reversible reaction.
ANS: B
A decomposition reaction occurs when a product is broken down into simpler forms as
existing chemical bonds are broken down, thus releasing the energy stored in those bonds.
4. Catabolism refers to:
a. a release of chemical energy involving the breakdown of a chemical bond.
b. the chemical reactions that occur in living organisms.
c. energy that is stored inside a chemical.
d. a chemical reaction that synthesises complex structures.
ANS: A
Catabolism encompasses chemical reactions that break down complex molecules into
smaller chemical units by breaking down existing chemical bonds. This process is
accompanied by a release of chemical energy and involves the breakdown of a chemical
bond by the addition of water molecules.
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Test Bank - Applied Anatomy and Physiology: An Interdisciplinary Approach, 1st Edition (Tomkins, 2021)
5. A functional group that is not attached to a carbon backbone and contains unpaired electrons
is referred to as:
a. an inorganic compound.
b. an amino acid.
c. a free radical.
d. a biomolecule.
ANS: C
A free radical is a functional group that is not attached to the carbon backbone and contains
unpaired electrons. This highly reactive and short-lived entity has been associated with the
pathology of many diseases.
6. The main source of energy utilised by cells consists of:
a. carbohydrates.
b. proteins.
c. lipids.
d. nucleic acids.
ANS: A
Carbohydrates contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen, where the carbon atoms link together
in chains or rings. Carbohydrates are the main source of energy in cells. They also have a
structural role as the building blocks of cell membrane components and nucleic acids and
participate in immune functions.
7. An amino acid’s identity is determined by the:
a. amine group.
b. carboxyl group.
c. hydrogen atom.
d. R group.
ANS: D
An amino acid is a monomer (building block) of protein that is composed of a central
carbon atom bonded to an amino functional group (NH2), a carboxyl group (COOH) and a
hydrogen atom. Every amino acid also contains additional molecules bonded to the central
carbon atom, which is termed the R group. The R group determines the amino acid’s
identity.
8. The protein structure consisting of an á-helix bonded to form a globular structure is:
a. primary.
b. secondary.
c. tertiary.
d. quaternary.
ANS: C
The sequence of amino acids, which is determined by your genes, gives rise to the primary
(most primitive) protein structure. As peptide backbones interact with one another they form
a secondary protein structure. These can be grouped into á-helix and â-pleated sheets. When
á-helix and â-pleated sheets fold further, they form a globular or tertiary protein structure. A
quaternary protein structure is a three-dimensional aggregation of two or more polypeptide
chains (subunits) that act together as a single unit.
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Test Bank - Applied Anatomy and Physiology: An Interdisciplinary Approach, 1st Edition (Tomkins, 2021)
9. A fatty acid is determined to contain multiple double bonds between carbon atoms. It is:
a. saturated.
b. unsaturated.
c. polyunsaturated.
d. monosaturated.
ANS: B
A saturated fatty acid contains single bonds between carbon atoms in the hydrocarbon chain.
If a hydrocarbon chain contains multiple double bonds, it is unsaturated fatty acid. If there is
only one double bond in the hydrocarbon chain, the fatty acid is said to be a monosaturated
fatty acid.
10. The base unit of a nucleic acid is:
a. a sugar component.
b. a phosphate.
c. an amine base.
d. a nucleotide.
ANS: D
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and ribonucleic acid (RNA) are made of many nucleotides
joined together in a long chain. Each nucleotide has a sugar component, an amine base and a
phosphate.
11. The plasma membrane is ideally suited to the passive transportation of:
a. hydrophilic substances.
b. hydrophobic substances.
c. water-soluble molecules.
d. proteins.
ANS: B
The phospholipid bilayer is composed of two layers of phospholipids: molecules that have a
hydrophobic (water-fearing) end composed of a fatty acid chain structure facing inwards,
and a hydrophilic (water-loving) structure (phosphate) facing outwards. A hydrophilic
molecule will not easily cross the membrane due to the lipid nature of the interior of the
plasma membrane.
12. A cell organelle is seen to contain pores through which molecules are transported to the
plasma membrane. The organelle is most likely the:
a. Golgi apparatus.
b. endoplasmic reticulum.
c. nucleus.
d. nucleolus.
ANS: C
The cell nucleus is separated from the rest of the cell structures by a nuclear membrane. This
membrane contains nuclear pores, which transport molecules from the cell cytoplasm to the
nucleus and from the nucleus to the cell cytoplasm.
13. Ribosomes are responsible for:
a. translating mRNA molecules into proteins.
b. maintaining an electrochemical gradient within the cell.
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Test Bank - Applied Anatomy and Physiology: An Interdisciplinary Approach, 1st Edition (Tomkins, 2021)
c. providing mechanical support needed to maintain cell shape.
d. assisting in the assembly of the nucleolus.
ANS: A
The main function of ribosomes is to translate messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules that
code for individual proteins. In simplest terms, the smaller unit reads the mRNA, whereas
the larger unit joins individual amino acids to form polypeptides chains.
14. Mitochondria are responsible for the production of:
a. inorganic biomolecules.
b. nucleotides.
c. ATP.
d. glucose.
ANS: C
Mitochondria produce cellular energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP), a fuel
that drives all cell metabolic processes. This energy is needed for cell survival, repair and
division.
15. The structure responsible for synthesis and transport of protein and lipid components is the:
a. lysosome.
b. cytoskeleton.
c. Golgi apparatus.
d. endoplasmic reticulum.
ANS: D
The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is a network of continuous interconnected channels and
sacs arranged in parallel rows that span from the outer nuclear membrane into the
cytoplasm, held together by cell cytoskeleton. The ER facilitates the synthesis and transport
of the protein and lipid components of most of the organelles, protein folding and sensing
cell stress.
16. The modification and packaging of proteins for export is the responsibility of the:
a. smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
b. ribosomes.
c. rough endoplasmic reticulum.
d. Golgi apparatus.
ANS: D
The Golgi apparatus or Golgi complex is a membranous organelle that receives proteins
from rough ER, performs final protein modifications and then packages protein into
membranous structures called vesicles for export from the cell.
17. A cell releases a chemical message that acts on itself. This is referred to as:
a. paracrine signalling.
b. synaptic signalling.
c. autocrine signalling.
d. endocrine signalling.
ANS: C
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In autocrine signalling, the cell releases chemical messengers that act on the cell from which
the message was released. For example, when a T-cell is exposed to a foreign antigen, it
releases a growth factor to which it responds by dividing many times to generate T-cell
clones capable of eliminating that antigen.
18. Skeletal muscle size increases due to increased functional demand during weight-lifting.
This is referred to as:
a. apoptosis.
b. hypertrophy.
c. atrophy.
d. adaptation.
ANS: B
Increased assembly of additional intracellular components such as an increased number of
mitochondria or the increased surface area of the ER due to increased protein synthesis
results in an increase in cell size, known as hypertrophy. This process is characteristic of
cells that have a very low capacity to divide and generate new cells (e.g. muscle cells).
19. The normal ciliated columnar epithelial cells of a casual smoker are gradually replaced with
stratified squamous epithelial cells. This is an example of:
a. atrophy.
b. hyperplasia.
c. apoptosis.
d. metaplasia.
ANS: D
When a cell is unable to respond to injurious stimuli, it may be replaced by a different cell
type that is better able to cope. The process by which one cell type is replaced with another
in the same tissue is called metaplasia.
20. The process of eliminating old or potentially harmful cells is referred to as:
a. metaplasia.
b. atrophy.
c. necrosis.
d. apoptosis.
ANS: D
Apoptosis, or programmed pathway, is induced by the cell’s own machinery, in which the
cell suicides in a controlled and predictable manner. The aim of apoptosis is to remove old,
dead cells but also to remove unwanted cells that may potentially turn into harmful cells.
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Test Bank - Applied Anatomy and Physiology: An Interdisciplinary Approach, 1st Edition (Tomkins, 2021)
Chapter 02: Genes and Genomics
Tomkins: Applied Anatomy & Physiology: An Interdisciplinary Approach, 1st Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. An autosome is:
a. a chromosome that does not code for gender but for other characteristics.
b. a specific location on a chromosome.
c. where each chromosome spits into two thread-like strands.
d. an increase or decrease in the number of chromosomes.
ANS: A
A healthy human genome contains 46 individual nuclear chromosomes arranged in 23 pairs
and housed in the nucleus of each cell. Of these 23 pairs of chromosomes, one pair consists
of the sex chromosomes: a female will have two X chromosomes (XX) and a male will have
one X chromosome and one Y (XY). The remaining chromosomes are called autosomes.
2. An allele is:
a. a variation of a gene based on differences in DNA base sequence.
b. the basic functional unit of heredity.
c. the complete set of genetic information needed to build and maintain a human
organism.
d. a specific location on a chromosome that is occupied by a gene.
ANS: A
A gene is the basic physical and functional unit of heredity. The term ‘human genome’
refers to the complete set of genetic information needed to build and maintain the human
organism. This genetic information consists of DNA packaged in genes. Each gene occupies
a specific location on a chromosome, known as locus. Genes come in slightly different
forms in each person. These are known as alleles and are characterised by small differences
in their sequence of DNA bases. Alleles are always found on the same loci on homologous
chromosomes.
3. The process whereby DNA makes a copy of itself is referred to as:
a. translation.
b. transcription.
c. aneuploidy.
d. DNA replication.
ANS: D
DNA replication is a very complex, tightly regulated process in which DNA makes a copy
of itself. The result is the exact number of DNA copies needed for two daughter cells. These
copies are correctly separated during cell division and inherited by the daughter cells.
4. Enzymes:
a. are composed of a series of complex carbohydrates.
b. form one of the main building blocks of cells.
c. affect the functioning and appearance of an organism.
d. regulate the speed at which biochemical reactions occur.
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ANS: D
Proteins form cellular structures as well as individual components needed for biochemical
reactions occurring in the cells. These components are called enzymes. Enzymes regulate
the rate (speed) at which biochemical reactions proceed in the cell.
5. The enzyme required in the transcription of mRNA is:
a. helicase.
b. RNA polymerase.
c. DNA polymerase.
d. mRNA promoter.
ANS: B
During transcription, a DNA molecule unwinds in the region of the gene to be transcribed.
RNA nucleotides circulating in the cell nucleus are aligned in a complementary manner
(adenine–thymine and cytosine–guanine) and temporarily attach to exposed DNA bases of
one of the single strands visible after the DNA has unwound. At this time RNA nucleotides
also chemically bond to one another to form a chain of mRNA. The resulting mRNA strand
is a copy of the opposite side of the DNA molecule. This reaction is controlled by the
enzyme RNA polymerase.
6. During translation, amino acids are brought to the site of protein synthesis by:
a. mRNA
b. tRNA.
c. rRNA.
d. codons.
ANS: B
Ribosome subunits attach to the beginning of the mRNA molecule (recognised through start
codon) and commence the process of mRNA translation. During translation, tRNA
molecules bring specific amino acids, which are encoded by mRNA codons (three base pairs
code for one amino acid) to align them at the ribosome site. These amino acids are then
joined together by peptide bonds as the chain expands to form primary protein structures
known as peptides. This process of elongation continues until the complete protein has been
formed and a stop codon is reached to signal termination of the process.
7. The sequence of three bases found on tRNA molecules is referred to as:
a. a codon.
b. an anti-codon.
c. a start codon.
d. a stop codon.
ANS: B
mRNA interacts with the larger ribosomal subunit. This initiates recruitment of tRNA,
which carries a specific sequence of three bases, known as an anti-codon. Each anti-codon
codes for a specific amino acid. Each mRNA contains a starting sequence (start codon) that
is recognised by the tRNA molecule carrying the complementary anti-codon as a site for
binding. This process of elongation continues until a stop codon (stop sequence) is reached
and the termination of protein synthesis occurs.
8. Cells that are in a resting state are said to be in the:
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Test Bank - Applied Anatomy and Physiology: An Interdisciplinary Approach, 1st Edition (Tomkins, 2021)
a. G0 phase.
b. G1 phase.
c. interphase.
d. S phase.
ANS: A
When cells are in a resting state—that is, they are not growing or dividing—they are said to
be in the G0 phase. In this state, cells simply perform the functions for which they have
evolved.
9. During the G1 phase:
a. DNA copies are synthesised and microtubules are created.
b. cells are considered to be in a resting state.
c. the plasma membrane, cytoplasm and organelles are separated.
d. cells increase in size to accommodate the new copies of organelles created.
ANS: D
During the G1 phase, cells increase in size to accommodate the new copies of organelles
they have made and that are needed to build the daughter cells. Cells also synthesise
proteins and other biochemical structures that will be used as building blocks for daughter
cells.
10. Semi-conservative replication in DNA means that each strand of DNA has:
a. two new daughter strands of DNA.
b. one original strand of parent DNA and one new strand of daughter DNA.
c. segments containing both original parent DNA and new daughter DNA.
d. two original strands of DNA from the parent DNA.
ANS: B
Each DNA strand serves as a template to form a complementary strand of new DNA by
incorporating the nucleotide present in the cell nucleus into the newly synthesised DNA.
This process is referred to as semi-conservative replication, meaning that each new
double-stranded DNA has one original strand of parent DNA and one new strand of
daughter DNA.
11. Sister chromatids align at the equatorial plate of the dividing cell during:
a. metaphase.
b. anaphase.
c. telophase.
d. cytokinesis.
ANS: A
During metaphase, the sister chromatids line up in a section known as the metaphase (or
equatorial) plate, which is located approximately in the centre of the dividing cell.
12. The process of equally dividing the contents and cytoplasm of two daughter cells is referred
to as:
a. metaphase.
b. anaphase.
c. telophase.
d. cytokinesis.
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