D115 Master Set-Advanced Pathophysiology For The A
D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the A
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D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse || A+ Guaranteed.
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D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the A
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D115 Master Set-Advanced Pathophysiology For The A
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? correct answers Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause? ...
D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the
Advanced Practice Nurse || A+ Guaranteed.
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? correct answers Sex-
Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected chromosome has the
illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause? correct
answers Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the leading
known cause of intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? correct answers Chorionic villus
sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are examples of
prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that
provides genetic information found in utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and 14
of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is
usually performed during the second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is
performed on the embryo prior to implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one chromosome
with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing gene? correct answers
Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion. This term
describes the cry often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can
present as a microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? correct answers The disease can be
transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an unaffected X to
a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the disease because she has
the other X (the only X the father can give to a female) to cancel it out.
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire population to the
disease rate in an unexposed population? correct answers Relative risk is a ratio of probability,
not an actual occurrence of disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? correct answers Many
factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation and evaluation of
each case individually provides the most thorough and accurate assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. correct answers The imprinted gene is the silent
gene of a gene pair.
,What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and wound
healing? correct answers The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's reserves to fight
against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? correct answers
Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria? correct answers Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing
bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? correct answers Helper T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering the
antigen? correct answers Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize
something foreign.
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an ABO
incompatibility? correct answers The complement pathway is activated in response to blood
incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? correct answers An
immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections? correct answers Infection with a fungus
is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to several skin mycoses,
including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect infection? correct
answers Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual transmission, whereas HIV
antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat testing may be needed
to rule out a false negative test due to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high
likelihood of exposure is suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? correct answers Exotoxins are released during bacterial
growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing colon
cancer? correct answers The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely studied and
have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most likely to
develop? correct answers Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and lung lining
cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
,The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. correct answers UV light causes
basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit DNA strands, causing
thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair together, becoming thymine dimers. These
thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? correct answers Exercise-
induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure control and has
been shown to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
true or false correct answers TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health outcomes may
result.
One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to incorporate
research and evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood through university-level
education in a manner consistent with an individual's literacy level.
True or false correct answers True
Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is crucial for
understanding and compliance.
What is a red flag for low healthcare literacy? correct answers Low literacy often leads to
perceived noncompliance to medical instructions, including medication instructions. Ensuring
the patient fully understands all instructions is critical for understanding.
Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women with certain health histories.
Which health history would result in an amniocentesis recommendation? correct answers Those
who have a family history of genetic disorders
Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of obesity.
What do these genes influence? correct answers Regulation of appetite-Research has shown that
genetic mutations may cause alterations in the regulation of appetite.
Which concept is data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 black
Americans an example of? correct answers Prevalence tells us how often disease is seen in a
population, which includes all people with the disease at a given time, at any stage in the disease
progression.
What describes a chromosomal defect caused by Prader-Willi syndrome? correct answers
Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of chromosome 15. Normally, a
portion of this chromosome is inherited from both parents. With Prader-Willi syndrome, the
chromosome inherited from the father is problematic.
Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process? correct answers Prevent infection of the
injured tissue
, The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism designed to remove damaged tissue so the
body can heal.
Which leukocytes are elevated in response to acute inflammatory reactions when considering
white blood cell differentials?
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils correct answers Neutrophils are one of the first responders to acute inflammation,
and an increase in neutrophils demonstrates an acute inflammatory response.
Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen
or after immunization against the antigen? correct answers Active-acquired immunity or
naturally acquired active immunity occurs when an individual is exposed to a live pathogen and
develops the disease or becomes immune as a result of a vaccine.
Which characteristics do atopic individuals have that make them genetically predisposed to
develop allergies? correct answers The greater quantities of IgE in atopic individuals make them
genetically predisposed to develop allergies. IgE mediates the immune response to allergens;
therefore, the more IgE one has, the stronger the response can be to an allergen. Think of it as
having more soldiers in the army to fight the war.
A healthcare professional is conducting community education on vaccinations.
Which statement about vaccines should the professional include in the presentation? correct
answers Vaccines require booster injections to maintain life-long protection.
Most vaccines require a booster to increase immunity. The initial effects of a vaccine may
diminish over time, and boosters improve protection against disease.
Which term describes an agent's ability to produce disease? correct answers Pathogenicity refers
to an organism's ability to create or produce disease.
What are signs and symptoms of Cri du Chrat Syndrome? correct answers DNA deletion of
chromosome 5. low birth weight, mental retardation, microencephaly, and cat like cry
What are the 3 layers of human defense? correct answers Physical, Mechanical, biochemical
barriers
What happens in the physical layer of human defense. correct answers protect against damage
and infection are composed of tightly associated epithelial cells including those of the skin and
of the membranous sheets lining the gastrointestinal, genitourinary, and respiratory tracts.
What is the second line of defense and the process? correct answers Inflammatory response-
rapid and nonspecific, protective response to cellular injury from any cause. It can occur only in
vascularized tissue.
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