WGU D027 Course Questions/ Updated Exam Questions with
Correct Verified Answers and Rationales – Latest 2024.
A 45-year-old man reports his preference for natural methods of treating illness. He states he takes
natural supplements that he orders from China to boost his health and well-being. One of the
supplements he takes daily is red yeast rice.
Which medication should be avoided with this patient's supplement? - ANSWER - Lovastatin (Mevacor) -
Red yeast rice naturally contains lovastatin and other statin-related compounds that significantly impact
LDL cholesterol; therefore, there is a risk for an increased effect and side effects if taken with a statin.
In 2003, it was estimated that adult patients only receive what percent of the 439 recommended clinical
services? - ANSWER - 55% -
Patients only received 55% of the 439 recommended clinical services recommended by subspecialists.
Because, under the current healthcare delivery system, it would take nearly the entire clinical day to
provide the preventive services needed for caring for a full panel of patients, providers must prioritize
which preventive services make the most sense for individuals rather than trying to deliver all 439 clinical
services to each patient. This prioritization should be patient-centered and evidence-based.
How many months after discharge does the Persistence of Beta-Blocker Treatment After a Heart Attack
core measure state a patient will receive a persistent beta blocker? - ANSWER - 6 months -
Six months of persistent treatment with a beta blocker post MI is associated with lower mortality rates
("Centers of Medicare & Medicare Services").
According to the Comprehensive Diabetes Care core measure "HbA1c poor control," what HgA1c
percentage is defined as poor control? - ANSWER - 9.0% -
HbA1c greater than 9% is indicative of poor glycemic control. Depending on the population, a goal for
glycemic control may be either 8% or 7% ("Centers of Medicare and Medicare Services").
According to core measures, medication reconciliation after discharge from an inpatient facility needs to
be completed within how many days? - ANSWER - 30 days -
pg. 1
,Post-discharge from an inpatient facility, medication reconciliation needs to be completed within 30
days.
When in excess, what do buffers absorb? - ANSWER - Hydrogen -
Excesses of acid or base, H+ or hydroxyl ion (OH−), are absorbed for the purpose of maintaining pH
homeostasis (pH of 7.38-7.42)
Which of the following would a patient with metabolic acidosis have? - ANSWER - pH below 7.35;
Bicarbonate level below 22 mEq/L -
The diagnosis of metabolic acidosis requires that the testing of arterial blood finds that the pH is less
than 7.35 and the bicarbonate level is less than 22 mEq/L.
What is the process by which RNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides? - ANSWER - Translation -
Translation refers to this process. Transcription is another process in which RNA is synthesized. Mutation
means genetic material has been modified through inheritance. Creation is a term that does not apply in
this context.
Which of the following should be completed when a disease is multifactorial but has a larger genetic
component? - ANSWER - Get a thorough family history -
Environment and lifestyle choices may influence a disease, but diseases such as breast cancer are
hereditary, so the family history should be reviewed.
Which action is the purpose of the inflammatory process? - ANSWER - To destroy foreign, invasive
microorganisms -
The general purpose of inflammation is to initiate the destruction of foreign or invasive organisms. As a
secondary effect, it increases the healing and immune response processes of the body.
When metronidazole [Flagyl] is a component of the H. pylori treatment regimen, the patient must be
instructed to do what? - ANSWER - Avoid any alcoholic beverages -
Concurrent use of metronidazole and alcohol with 72 hours of completing the course carries high
potential to produce a disulfiram-like effect (immediate hangover symptoms, nausea, vomiting,
headache) and severe abdominal cramping.
pg. 2
,A patient's provider has recommended a bulk-forming laxative for occasional constipation. Which
statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching about this agent? - ANSWER - "I should
take each dose with a full glass of water." -
Bulk-forming laxatives may be taken one to three or four times per day (depending on the medication)
and taken with a full glass of water. Bulk-forming laxatives are a mainstay of both irritable bowel
syndrome (IBS) and diarrheal treatment.
A patient who has traveler's diarrhea asks the nurse about using loperamide to stop the symptoms. What
will the nurse tell the patient about this drug? - ANSWER - "Use of this drug may prolong symptoms by
slowing peristalsis and should not be used for infectious diarrhea." -
Loperamide is recommended to treat mild diarrheal illness. It should not be used for infectious diarrhea
due to its slowing the body's mechanisms of expelling the infectious agent.
A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus takes glipizide. The patient develops a urinary tract infection, and
the prescriber orders trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMZ). What will the nurse tell the patient? -
ANSWER - "The patient should check the blood glucose level more often while taking TMP/SMZ." -
The SMZ in TMP/SMZ increases the effect of glipizide, which puts the patient at risk of hypoglycemia.
(Blood glucose should be tested more frequently while taking TMP/SMZ.)
A young, nonpregnant female patient with a history of a previous urinary tract infection (UTI) is
experiencing dysuria, urinary urgency and frequency, and suprapubic pain of three days' duration. She is
afebrile. A urine culture is positive for more than 100,000/mL of CFU urine. Which treatment should the
nurse caring for this patient recommend? - ANSWER - A three-day course of
trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Bactrim] -
A female UTI is treated with either a single-dose, short course, or long course of antibiotics, depending
on the etiology. Eighty percent of female recurrent UTIs are due to reinfection versus relapse and should
be treated as a new infection with a short course of antibiotics. Short-course therapy is more efficacious
than single-dose therapy in treating uncomplicated UTIs in nonpregnant women with symptoms that last
less than seven days.
A patient complains of painful urination. A physical examination reveals vesicles on her labia, vagina, and
the foreskin of her clitoris. The nurse will expect to teach this patient about which medication? -
ANSWER - Acyclovir [Zovirax] -
Vesicular infections caused by herpes simplex genitalis are treated with antiviral agents like acyclovir and
valacyclovir [Valtrex].
pg. 3
, What is the recurrence rate for autosomal dominant disease? - ANSWER - 50% -
For a couple in which one or both partners are affected by the disease, the chance of each child being
heterozygous affected is 50%.
Which of the following statements is true about autosomal recessive disease? - ANSWER - It affects both
men and women equally -
A criterion for recognizing the inheritance of an autosomal recessive disease is that men and women will
be affected by it in equal measure.
What is the proportion of the population affected by a disease at the specific point in time? - ANSWER -
Prevalence rate -
Incidence rate refers to how many new cases there are of a disease within a period of time divided by
the number of the population's individuals. The prevalence rate is affected by the incidence rate and
how long the affected patients survive. Risk factor is anything that could lead to disease. Relative risk is
the measure of a risk factor effect.
A 54-year-old Caucasian man comes in for a lab review. His lipids reveal an LDL of 180, an HDL of 52, and
triglycerides of 326. He has no history of atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) or diabetes. His
blood pressure is 118/64. He has a pulse rate of 64, and he weighs 320 lb. He smokes one pack of
cigarettes per day, and his ASCVD risk score is 12.8.
Which medication should this patient be started on? - ANSWER - Atorvastatin (Lipitor) 20mg -
Atorvastatin is more effective in reducing total cholesterol having a greater impact on lowering LDL
cholesterol. The American College of Cardiology guidelines on blood cholesterol management emphasize
that the greater the reduction in the LDL-C on statin therapy, the greater the subsequent risk reduction.
A 73-year-old man with congestive heart failure (CHF) comes to a clinic complaining of shortness of
breath. He is currently taking 6.25 mg carvedilol (Coreg) twice a day and 50 mg losartan (Cozaar) and 20
mg furosemide (Lasix) daily. His oxygen saturation is 95%, and he has a pulse of 64. His BP is 138/82, and
his BNP is 1500.
Using the 2017 heart failure guidelines, which medication change should be recommended for this
patient? - ANSWER - Stop angiotensin receptor blockers (ARB) and add sacubitril/valsartan (Entresto) -
In this case, the elevated BNP indicates significant heart failure. Guidelines recommend replacing an ARB
or ACE inhibitor with an ARNI such as Entresto.
pg. 4
