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Ortho (OPD) Board Certification Test – With Questions & Solutions (100% Correct)
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Ortho (OPD) Board Certification Test – With Questions & Solutions (100% Correct) Ortho (OPD) Board Certification Test – With Questions & Solutions (100% Correct) What anatomic abnormality may predispose a person to develop impingement syndrome or rotator cuff tendonitis? - ANSWER - o In gen...

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  • August 29, 2024
  • 20
  • 2024/2025
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers

Subjects

  • ortho opd board certification test questions
  • ortho opd board certification test answers
  • following joint abnormalities follows an viral upp
  • sensation in which of the following places would

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  • OPD Board Certification
  • OPD Board Certification

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Ortho (OPD) Board
Certification Test – With
Questions & Solutions (100%
Correct)
CONCEPTIAL RESEARCHERS

, Ortho (OPD) Board Certification Test –
With Questions & Solutions (100%
Correct)
• What anatomic abnormality may predispose a person to develop impingement
syndrome or rotator cuff tendonitis? - ANSWER - o In general the acromion process
should be flat inferiorly to allow smooth passage of the rotator cuff tendons, in type 2
or type 3 acromion processes however, the underside of the acromion is not flat, but
curved or hooked respectively and thus may predispose a patient to those
conditions.

• A family friend calls you because her mother was recently diagnosed with
Polymyalgia Rheumatica. She has been doing some research, but wants to know
what the usual treatment is for this condition. Which of the following would be your
response? - ANSWER - o Low dose corticosteroids for a couple of years and close
follow-up with Rheumatology

• A patient who has recently begun treatment for systemic lupus erythematosus with
hydroxychloroquine returns to your clinic because she is experiencing side effects
from the medication. Which of the following is most likely her complaint? - ANSWER
- o Hydroxychloroquine may cause macular damage, and thus result in impaired
night vision in patients taking this medication. Patients with SLE should be monitored
at least yearly by an ophthalmologist to monitor for these retinal changes. All other
side effects are not commonly associated with the use of this medication for
treatment of SLE.

• A 14 year old boy presents to your clinic complaining of 'bumps' on his legs.
Physical exam reveals non-tender bony protuberances on the distal femur and
proximal tibia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? - ANSWER - o
Osteochondroma

• A 23 year old male, who is an avid skier, presents after sustaining an injury while
skiing earlier this week. He reports that he fell while bracing himself with his ski
poles, and thinks that he may have hyperextended his thumb joint. You elicit
tenderness to the ulnar aspect of the right metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint with
MCP joint laxity under valgus stress. Xray of the hand is negative. Which of the
following is the treatment of choice for this patient? - ANSWER - Thumb spica splint
and urgent hand specialist referral
o This patient has a Gamekeeper's (aka Skier's) Thumb. In this condition there is an
injury to the ulnar collateral ligament that stabilizes the thumb. Immobilization with a
thumb spica splint and referral to a hand specialist is the general treatment.

• Which of the following regimens is acceptable in the treatment of osteomyelitis
caused by Staphylococcus aureus ? - ANSWER - o Six weeks of IV antibiotics
followed by 1-2 weeks of outpatient oral antibiotics

, • Which of the following clinical interventions is indicated in the treatment of Legg-
Calve-Perthes disease? - ANSWER - o Legg-Calve-Perthes disease (LCPD) results
from avascular necrosis of the femoral head, proximally. This condition tends to
occur most often in males, ages 4-10. These patients should be referred to an
orthopedist for evaluation and treatment. Abduction splinting is the treatment of
choice in LCPD, with the goal of maintaining femoral head shape within the
acetabulum as it heals.

• A 16 year old male, who plays on his school's football team, is brought to the
urgent care with right knee pain. He states that he was playing in the game last
night, and while running was tackled from the right side at the level of his knee. He
experienced immediate knee pain and swelling, neither of which have significantly
decreased overnight, or with conservative measures. On physical exam, you note
swelling around the right knee, and pain with range of motion, as well as positive
Lachman's and McMurray's tests. You suspect ACL, and medial meniscus damage.
What other structure may have been injured in this injury? - ANSWER - o ACL, MCL,
and medial meniscal injury compose what is referred to as the 'Unhappy triad' or the
'Triad of O'Donohue'. These three structures are commonly injured due to the
mechanism of injury described in this patient's presentation, namely that of having
the foot planted with the knee in slight flexion, and lateral impact.

• A 40 year old construction worker presents complaining of right wrist pain that has
worsened over the last two weeks. He admits that the pain is worse with certain
tasks, or at night when he is sleeping. He also admits that at times part of his hand
and his first three digits feel numb. On physical exam you find that his grip strength is
decreased on the right. What is the initial treatment of choice for this patient's
condition? - ANSWER - o Volar wrist splints, along with activity modification, and
NSAIDs are the first line treatment in carpal tunnel syndrome.

• Indication of rotator cuff tear - ANSWER - o Weakness that is not attributable to
pain or atrophy is the hallmark of rotator cuff tear. A diagnostic lidocaine injection
may help determine if this is the case.

• Which of the following physical exam tests, if positive, is most suggestive of inferior
instability of the glenohumeral joint? - ANSWER - o The sulcus sign is performed by
applying inferior traction to the arm and observing the shoulder for the formation of a
sulcus at the lateral edge of the acromion process. This test is indicative of inferior
instability.
o Apprehension test is more indicative of anterior dislocation

• Which of the following joint abnormalities follows an viral upper respiratory
infection? - ANSWER - o Transient synovitis is the most common cause of a limp
with associated hip pain in children ages 3-10 years of age and is more common in
males. It frequently follows a viral upper respiratory tract infection. There is
commonly nothing significant found on CBC, and an ultrasound reveals no effusion
(as it would in a septic joint). Transient synovitis is treated with rest and NSAIDs.

• Which of the following hip joint abnormalities follows an viral upper respiratory
infection? treatment? - ANSWER - o Transient synovitis is the most common cause
of a limp with associated hip pain in children ages 3-10 years of age and is more

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