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PEDS 6541 Exam Study Guide | Questions with 100% Correct Answers
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PEDS 6541 Exam Study Guide | Questions with 100% Correct Answers
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6. An 18 month old child exposed to HIV in utero had negative HIV DNA at 2 weeks and 8PEDS 6541 Exam Study Guide | Questions with 100% weeks. What is indicated at the 18 month visit?
Correct Answers | Verified | Latest Update 2024 A. No further testing is needed
B. HIV DNA should be repeated
C. Enzyme immunoassay for antibody to HIV 1 should be performed
1. A 17 year old sexually active girl with chancres in the genital area is noted to have a positive D.CBC with diff and immunoglobulins is needed
Venereal Disease Research Laboratories (VDRL) test. The next step would be to.
A. Treat with ceftriaxone
B. Perform a specific treponemal antibody test
C. Culture for C. trachomatis 7. A newborn fails his newborn hearing test. Because the mother is an adolescent and there is
D. Discuss safer sex practices evidence of the presence of intrauterine growth restriction, jaundice, and mild hepatomegaly,
you suspect CMV. What is the best way to establish the diagnosis of congenital CMV?
A. CMV-specific IgM
B.Isolation of CMV from infant urine, pharynx, or peripheral blood leukocytes within first 3 weeks
2. The mother of an 11 year old boy is concerend that her son is developing secondary sexual of life
characteristics too early. Your counseling for this family is based on the knowledge that C. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISA)
puberty is considered precocious in boys if secondary sexual characteristics appear prior to D. CMV antigenemia
age
A. 12 years
B. 11 years 8. A 2 year old female has lymphedema of the hands and feet, with low posterior hairline,
C. 10 years cubitus valgus, and a history of IUGR. Which of the following dfects is the most common
D. 9 years among the children with these signs? A. Supravalvular aortic valve stenosis
B. Mitral valve prolapse
C. Dissecting aortic arch
D. Coarctation of the aorta
3. Which of the following signs of symptoms is not associated with congenital adrenal
hyperplasia?
A. Hypernatremia 9. A newborn presents with lymphadenopathy, a decrease in the ability to move the left leg,
B. Progressive weight loss Coombs-negative hemolytic anemia, hepatomegaly, and snuffles. what is the most likely
C. Dehydration diagnosis?
D. Hyperkalemia A. congenital herpes infections
B. CMV
C. Congenital syphilis
D. Congenital gonococcal infection
4. An adolescent male who fails to develop secondary sex characteristics at puberty and who 10. What would you expect to find in a child with congenital toxoplasmosis?
has small underdeveloped testes should be suspected of having A. Jaundice
A. Adrenal hyperplasia B. Microcephaly
B. Klinefelter syndrome C. Cerebral calcifications
C. C. Marfan syndrome D. Congenital heart disease
D. D. Cerebral gigantism
11. A mantoux test in a child with no risk factors is considered postiive with a reaction of
A. at least 5 mm induration
5. Fasting blood glucose goals for children younger than the age of 6 years with diabetes B. at least 8 mm induration
should be: C. At least 10 mm induration
A. Between 100 and 180 D. at least 15 mminduration
B. Between 70 and 120
C. Between 60 and 80
D. Slightly over 200 12. You have ordered routine blood screening for a 2 year old girl who because of dietary habits
is at risk for IDA. Which of the following findings is not associated with IDA.
A. Hypochromic RBC
B. Microcytic RBC
, C. Low reticulocyte count
D. Low free erythrocyte protoporphin level
19. a 7 year old has experience recurrent epistaxis in the past 2 months. Which finding on the
physical exam would suggest an underlying medical cause for the epistaxis?
A. Wheezing
13. A tenderness is detected over the tibial tuberosity of a 10 year old boy during a routine B. Grade ii murmur
examination at a school-based clinic. The PNP know that this may be a sign of- C. Petechiae
A. Osgood- Schlatter D. tonsil hypertrophy
B. Blount's disease
C. Plantar fascitis
D. Effusion in the joint space 20. What complication of sinusitis are adolescent males more prone to?
A. Intracranial abscess
B. Potts puffy tumor
C. Orbital cellulitis
14. Which one of the following conditions increases the risk of developing hydrocephalus? D. Dental infection
A. Bilateral cephalohematomas
B. Craniosynostosis
C. Prematurity
D. Familial macrocephaly 21. A 9 month old is noted to have a bifid uvula. This would increase his risk of developing
which disorder?
A. Otitis media
15. Confirming the diagnosis of chlamydia conjunctivitis in a newborn would best be done by B. Retropharyngeal abscess
obtaining which one of the following? C. Sinusitis
A. Cervical swab of the mother D. Dental malocclusion
B. Urine PCR from the mother
C. culture of the eye discharge
D. culture of the conjunctival scrapings 22. Initial exposure to the herpes virus may produce all of the following except:
A. Fever and dehydration
B. Submandibular lymph nodes
C. Vesicular lesions on tonsils
16. A 3 year old has an edematous, mildly erythematous right upper eyelid for 1 day with a fever D. Friable and edematous gingiva
of 103. An important eye assessment would be
A. ocular mobility
B. Conjunctival inflammation
C. Pupillary reaction
D. Optic disc papilledema 23. In addiction to penicillin, all of the following antibiotics can be used to treat strep
phayrngitis except:
A. clindamycin
17. Concurrent otitis media and onjunctivitis is likely due to which organism? B. Erythromycin
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Bactrim
B. Haemophilus influenzae D. Ceftriaxone
C. Moraxella catarrhalis
D. Staphyloccocus aureaus
24. Appropriate lab tests to obtain in assessment of cervical adentis would include all of the
18. A 16 year old was hit in the eye 1 day ago and now has ecchymoses on the upper and lower following except. A. Throat culture
lids with 5 out of 10 eye pain. All but which of the following would be appropriate to obtain B. mono test
at this time? C. PPD test
A. visual acuity D. Blood culture
B. Intraocular pressure
C. CT scan
D. Fluoroscein test
25. A common cause of congestive heart failure in the first year of life is
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