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EFMB Written Test FY23 Questions And Answers Latest Update 2024/2025 $15.99   Add to cart

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EFMB Written Test FY23 Questions And Answers Latest Update 2024/2025

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EFMB Written Test FY23 Questions And Answers Latest Update 2024/2025

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  • September 8, 2024
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EFMB Written Test FY23 Questions And
Answers Latest Update 2024/2025

The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine Anterior- Posterior (AP) chest
and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n) _______________________ Answer:
Portable x-ray machine.



True/False: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by cervical spine radiographic
evaluation (CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE is unavailable Answer: False, CT is
superior to radiographic CSRE



What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography scanner? Answer: Role 3



What is the lowest level of care equipped with a portable x-ray machine? Answer: Role 2



Members of the trauma team should have ___________ aprons and thyroid shields available near the
trauma bay for radiation safety. Answer: lead



True/False: Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma. Answer: False,
hazardous noise = acoustic trauma



The symptoms of acoustic trauma are Answer: Hearing loss, tinnitus (ringing in the ear), aural
fullness, recruitment (ear pain with loud noise), difficulty localizing sounds, difficulty hearing in a noisy
background, and vertigo



Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is either Answer: temporary or
permanent

,The ear, specifically the , is the most sensitive organ to primary blast injury. Answer: tympanic
membrane



True/False: The smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater the likelihood is of
spontaneous closure. Answer: True



What are indications for endotracheal intubation during your initial burn survey? Answer: >40%
TBSA due to swelling, comatose, symptomatic inhalation injury, deep facial burns



Burn casualties with injuries greater than _____ Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) are at high risk of
hypothermia Answer: 20%



True/False: When providing point of injury care to a burn patient, you must immediately debride blisters
and cover burns with loose, moist gauze wraps or a wet clean sheet Answer: False, Do not debride
blisters until the patient has reached a facility with surgical capability



Calculate a burn patient's initial burn size using the Rule of Answer: 9s,

head, arms = 9%, 9%, 9%

Torso = 36%

Legs = 18%, 18%



Which type of burn is NOT included in the estimation of Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) used for fluid
resuscitation? Answer: First degree or superficial burns



True/False: In addition to providing immediate care to preserve life, limb, or eye sight when veterinary
personnel are not available, human healthcare providers are also responsible for providing routine
medical, dental, or surgical care to Military Working Dogs in combat or austere areas of operation
Answer: False, not routine care

,The is the best person to control the Military Working Dog; they have the most accurate information
about past medical problems and the current situation, and they have first aid training and can assist in
care Answer: dog handler



________ is the normal temperature (rectal) range for a Military Working Dog at rest. Answer: 101-
103



______ is the heart/pulse rate range for a Military Working Dog at rest Answer: 60-80



True/False: The normal blood pressure for a Military Working Dog at rest is systolic 120 mmHg/diastolic
80 mmHg Answer: True



How long can whole blood collected in the anticoagulant CPD be stored? Answer: 21 days, 35 days if
in CPDA-1



How long can whole blood collected in the anticoagulant CPDA-1 be stored? Answer: 35 days



1. If stored at room temperature, fresh whole blood must be destroyed if not used within what time
period? Answer: 24 hours



True/False: 1. The most important safety consideration in transfusing whole blood is that donor red
blood cells be compatible with the recipient to avoid acute hemolytic transfusion reactions. Answer:
True



1. How often SHOULD titer and transfusion transmitted disease retesting be conducted? Answer: 90
days



True/False: Infection Prevention in Combat-related Injuries standard precautions apply to all patients,
regardless of suspected or confirmed infectious status. Answer: True

, The World Health Organization's "five moments of hand hygiene" include Answer: 1. Use of
soap/water or alcohol sanitizer before contact.

2. Before aseptic tasks.

3. After bodily fluids exposure risk.

4. After patient contact.

5. After contact with patient surrounds even if gloved



What are Infection Prevention in Combat-related Injuries standard precautions? Answer: Hand
washing,

gloves,

gowns,

masks,

goggles

or face shield



True/False: When implementing infection prevention measures in a combat zone, cohorting is the
process of clustering host nation patients (who are not eligible to evacuate from theater) and U.S. and
coalition patients (who are eligible for evacuation from theater) and separate when possible to reduce
the risk of cross-contamination with multi-drug resistant organisms Answer: True



________ and ________ should be worn with all patients suspected or known to have multi-drug
resistant organism colonization or infection with C. difficile- infection (CDI). Answer: gloves, gowns



What substance is NOT a highly water soluble irritant? Answer: oxides of nitrogen and phosgene
(highly = acrolein, sulfur dioxide, hydrogen chloride, and ammonia)

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