PANCE Practice Questions and Answers
(Verified Answers) Latest update 2025 (60
Questions with Answers Explained)
A 52 year-old male presents complaining of urinary
frequency, with hesitancy, and nocturia for the past few
months. During his physical examination, you note a
nontender, non-enlarged prostate with an isolated right
posterior lobe nodule. Which of the following options is most
appropriate?
*A.* order a serum acid phosphatase level
*B.* initiate prazosin and schedule a follow-up appointment in
6 weeks
*C.* refer the patient for an ultrasound of the prostate and
order a PSA level
*D.* reassure the patient and schedule a follow-up
appointment in six months
*E.* initiate norfloxacin therapy for 7 days and schedule
follow-up in two weeks - Correct Answer ✅ *Answer: C*
This patient has an isolated nodule of the prostate gland —
cancer until proven otherwise. You should order an ultrasound
and a PSA. BPH will present as diffuse enlargement, and not a
discrete nodule.
,PANCE Practice Questions and Answers
(Verified Answers) Latest update 2025 (60
Questions with Answers Explained)
You are educating a patient that has just been advised that
he has "polyps" in his colon. Which of the following
statements is FALSE?
A. The larger the colonic polyp, the greater the risk of
malignant transformation
B. Villous adenomas have a 30-70% risk of malignant
transformation.
C. The greater the number of concomitant colonic polyps, the
greater the risk of malignant transformatio
D. The majority of colonic polyps are hyperplastic in origin
E. The majority of colonic polyps are > 3 cm in size. - Correct
Answer ✅ Answer: E, The majority of colonic polyps are > 3
cm in size.
Most polyps are, in fact, quite small. All the rest of these
statements are true
,PANCE Practice Questions and Answers
(Verified Answers) Latest update 2025 (60
Questions with Answers Explained)
Which term is used to describe the characteristic concave or
"spoon-shaped" nails of iron deficiency anemia?
A. leukonychia
B. koilonychias
C. clubbing
D. onycholysis
E. paronychia - Correct Answer ✅ *Answer: B. Koilonychia*
Koilonychia is a spoon-shaping of the nail itself. It is usually a
result of iron deficiency anemia. Leukonychia is often
associated with hypoalbuminaemia that causes partial or
complete white discoloration of the nails. Leukonychia may
also appear as a rare side effect of systemic chemotherapy in
some oncological patients but may also be present with
arsenic poisoning, renal failure pneumonia, or heart disease.
Clubbing of the nails is an actual thickening or elevation of
the nail bed - it is a sign of release of TNF associated with
pulmonary disorders (tissue necrosis factor) typically found in
bronchiectasis, lung cancers and cystic fibrosis (the nails are
NOT necessarily cyanotic.) Onycholysis is a painless
, PANCE Practice Questions and Answers
(Verified Answers) Latest update 2025 (60
Questions with Answers Explained)
separation of the nail from the nail bed. Several or all nails
are usually affected - there are many causes. Paronychia is an
infection of the nail bed and nail margin, usually from trauma
or more commonly, nail-biting.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of the
nephrotic syndrome?
A. proteinuria
B. hematuria
C. hypoalbuminemia
D. hyperlipidemia
E. generalized edema - Correct Answer ✅ *Answer: B.
Hematuria*
Hematuria is present in NEPHRITIC syndrome. Nephrotic
syndrome characteristically includes proteinuria (>3.5
gm/day), with resulting low serum albumin, hyperlipidemia,
hypertension, hypercoagulability, and generalized edema
(from oncotic third-spacing)
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