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RCIS 2024 Glowacki & Sommers Exam/330 Q’s and A’s
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RCIS 2024 Glowacki & Sommers Exam/330 Q’s and A’s
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RCIS 2024 Glowacki & SommersExam/330 Q’s and A’s
1. What is the normal range of Potassium (K+) in the blood? - -3.5 - 5.O
-2. What is the name for Potassium <3.5 - -Hypokalemia
-3. What is the name for Potassium >5.0 - -Hyperkalemia
-4. Name some Antiplatelet meds - -ASA, Plavix, Brillenta, Effient, Integrelin,
and Reopro
-5. Adenosine causes what - -Max Hyperemia
-6. When the patient has a vasovagal reaction, what do you do? - -Give
Fluids
Trendelenburg position
Atropine .5mg- 1mg IV push
-7. When a patient has a vasovagal reaction, what do you see? - -BP
Decreases
HR Decreases
SV Decreases
-8. If a patient has a high Creatinine, what should you consider? - -Pre-Op
Fluid Hydration
Use as small amount of contrast as possible
:3Ml/Kg or 3 times the GFR
-9. How does heparin prevent clot formation? - -by preventing the
conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
Heparin combines with antithrombin to make it more effective
-10. What is the initial dose of Versed for Sedation? - -.5 mg - 1mg
-11. what is the action of Reopro? - -Reopro inhibits IIb/IIIa receptors
-12. INR measures the levels of which drug? - -Coumadin
-13. Most commjon access point to perform a myocardial biopsy? - -R IJ
-14. What are the landmarks to preform an IJ access? - -the IJ lies between
the medial and lateral heads of the sternocleidomastoid muscle and lateral
to the carotid artery
,-15. Lovenox impacts what? - -Antithrombin and Factor Xa
-16. What might be the medication of choice for SVT? - -Adenosine
-17. What short acting benzodiazepine is commonly used in the cath lab for
sedation? - -Versed (Midazolam)
-18. Steps to place a distal protection device? - -1. place the device distal to
the lesion
2.cross the lesion with stent/ balloon
3.deploy the Stent
4.remove stent balloon
5.remove the protection device
-19. how to you check a patient's clotting time after being given heparin? - -
ACT
If not available, draw PTT
-20. Prior to a procedure, what information must be found on the patient's
chart? - -H&P with 30 days
Informed consent
specific cath lab procedure order set
-21. How does plavix act? - -Plavix turns off receptor sites on the platelets
(super-aspirin)
-22. If a patient is on NPH insulin, what medication should not be given? - -
Protamine
-23. which procedure require venous access? - -ASD/PFO
Mitral Clip
Watchman
Mitral Valveplasty
Right heart cath
heart biopsy
permanent pacemaker
temporary pacemaker
afib ablation/EP
ICE catheter
-24. Which procedure require arterial access? - -Left heart cath
PCI
TAVR
Impella
IABP
, -25. What does ASA do? - -ASA prevents platelet adhesion
-26. TPA acts by? - -Dissolving fibrin
Activates Plasminogen
-27. Which procedures require the use of the ICE catheter - -ASD/PFO
Mitral Valvuloplasty
Mitral Valve Clip
EP Ablations
In place of TEE in TAVR
-28. What labs look at kidney function? - -BUN and Creatinine
GFR
Creatinine clearance
-29. The most accurate measure of cardiac muscle fiber damage after an MI
is what? - -Troponin
-30. Which lab value does not evaluate the extent of an MI?
SGOT
bSerum Creatinine
CK-MB - -Serum creatinine
-31. Post procedure renal dysfunction more likely to occur in patients with? -
-DM
Pre-op dehydration
Frequent use of NSAID
Ace Inhibitors
-32. What may cause cancellation of an elective cath lab procedure? - -
Increased WBC's
Low potassium
Increased INR
Anemia (low hgb and hct)
elevated creatinine
decreased GFR
Hypotension
-33. What is a pseudoaneurysm? - -Pseudoaneurysm is a false aneurysm
Often a pulsatile mass near the sheath site with a bruit present
-34. If the transducer is positioned to low at the side of the table after it has
been zeroed, the pt's pressure will read? - -the pressure will read as falsely
high
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