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NCLEX-PN 3000 (In case you need to study for the LPN exam) Questions With Complete Solutions
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NCLEX-PN 3000 (In case you need to study for the LPN exam) Questions With Complete Solutions
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NCLEX-PN 3000 (In case you need to study for theLPN exam) Questions With Complete Solutions
A 40-year-old client is admitted to the hospital for alcohol abuse
for the third time in the past 9 months. The health care team
recommends rehabilitative treatment for this client. Why was
this treatment recommended?
1. It's the only option for controlling alcohol consumption.
2. It helps the client identify a new group of friends.
3. It helps the client understand the effects of alcohol on his
body.
4. It helps the client identify the relationship between his
problems and alcohol consumption. Correct Answers Correct
Answer: 4
,RATIONALES: The purpose of rehabilitative treatment in
alcoholism is to help the client identify the relationship between
his problems and his alcohol consumption. Rehabilitative
treatment promotes abstinence, not limiting or controlling
consumption. It isn't intended to help the client identify a new
group of friends or understand the effects of alcohol on his body.
A 42-year-old client comes to the clinic and is diagnosed with
shingles. Which findings confirm this diagnosis?
Select all that apply:
1. Severe, deep pain around the thorax
2. Red, nodular skin lesions around the thorax
3. Fever
4. Malaise
5. Diarrhea Correct Answers Correct Answer: 1,2,3,4
,RATIONALES: Shingles, also called herpes zoster, is an acute
unilateral and segmental inflammation of the dorsal root ganglia.
It's caused by infection with the herpes virus varicella-zoster, the
same virus that causes chickenpox. It commonly causes severe,
deep pain along a peripheral nerve on the trunk of the body and
red, nodular skin lesions. Fever and malaise typically
accompany these findings. Diarrhea doesn't commonly occur
with shingles.
A 43-year-old man was transferring a load of firewood from his
front driveway to his backyard woodpile at 10 a.m. when he
experienced a heaviness in his chest and dyspnea. He stopped
working and rested, and the pain subsided. At noon, the pain
returned. At 1:30 p.m., his wife took him to the emergency
department. Around 2 p.m., the emergency department
physician diagnoses an anterior myocardial infarction (MI). The
nurse should anticipate which immediate order by the physician?
1. Lidocaine administration
2. Cardiac stress test
3. Serial liver enzyme testing
, 4. Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) Correct Answers Correct
Answer: 4
RATIONALES: If 6 hours or less have passed since the onset of
symptoms related to MI, thrombolytic therapy is indicated. (The
client's chest pain began 4 hours before diagnosis.) The
preferred choice is tPA. The client doesn't exhibit symptoms that
indicate the use of lidocaine. Stress testing shouldn't be
performed during the acute phase of an MI, but it may be
ordered before discharge. Serial cardiac biomarkers, not serial
liver enzymes, would be ordered for this client.
A 76-year-old client is admitted to a long-term care facility with
Alzheimer's-type dementia. The client has been wearing the
same dirty clothes for several days. The nurse contacts the
family and asks them to bring in clean clothing. Which
intervention would bestprevent further regression in the client's
personal hygiene?
1. Encouraging the client to perform as much self-care as
possible
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