PCCN Exam Test Questions and
Answers | Rated A+ | Latest
2024/2025
When administering vasoactive drugs, which of following
parameters most accurately estimates end-organ perfusion?
A. Urinary output, lactate, ScvO2
B. Pulse, urinary output, strength of pulses
C. Blood pressure, respiratory rate, ST depression on 12 Lead
ECG
D. Urinary output, white blood cell count, temperature
- Correct Answer - a
While assessing a patient, the RN notes a systolic ejection
murmur, split S2, and rales. These findings are consistent with:
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Mitral regurgitation
C. Aortic stenosis
D. Aortic regurgitation
,- Correct Answer - c
A spiral CT scan reveals a pulmonary embolism in a 38-year-old
with stable vital signs. You should prepare for which of the
following?
A. Coumadin with daily PT/INR monitoring
B. rtPA infusion—80 mg over 1 hour
C. Unfractionated heparin with daily PTT, adding Coumadin after
1-2 days
D. Pradaxa anticoagulation therapy
- Correct Answer - c (In a stable patient with a PE, heparin is
used to prevent the clot from further growth, allowing the body to
break it down normally. Coumadin (warfarin) therapy is used long
term for anticoagulation.)
A competitive benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can be
used as an antidote for benzodiazepine overdose.
- Correct Answer - Flumazenil (Romazicon)
,Potential complications of bariatric surgery include infection and
bleeding, and gastric bypass also carries the risk of
_____________________ leak. Signs may be insidious such that
elevated heart rate is the only indicator before sepsis begins.
- Correct Answer - anastomotic
Injury to the posterior heart wall manifests itself with ST-
depression in the septal leads with a large R-wave in lead _____
which is a reciprocal change. The right coronary artery is of issue.
- Correct Answer - V2
Vancomycin has a high risk of _______________________ and
an elevated serum creatinine is important to review with the
providers to ensure the plan will be to continue to the planned
medication treatment. - Correct Answer - nephrotoxicity
_______________________ is the best indicator that shock is
from a neurogenic cause such as spinal shock. - Correct Answer
- bradycardia
, An 18-year-old with Type 1 diabetes is admitted with a
hyperglycemic emergency. Her initial glucose was 320 mg/dL with
a potassium of 5.2. Your highest priority when caring for her is:
A. Correcting her glucose levels
B. Ensuring she eats dinner
C. Restarting her home SQ insulin
D. Correcting her fluid deficit
- Correct Answer - d
Which set of lab values is commonly seen in acute pancreatitis?
A. Hyperglycemia, hypercalcemia, hyperkalemia
B. Hyperglycemia, hypocalcemia, hypokalemia
C. Hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, hypokalemia
D. Hypoglycemia, hypercalcemia, hyperkalemia
- Correct Answer - b (Damage to the pancreas inhibits its
endocrine function of insulin production. Without insulin,
hyperglycemia ensues. Lipolysis from pancreatic enzyme causes
increased free fatty acids in the vascular compartment that bind
calcium. Thus, the patient may exhibit hypocalcemia.
Hypokalemia can result from excessive vomiting.)
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