EFMB 2024 Study Guide Questions And
Answers Graded A+.
The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine Anterior-
Posterior (AP) chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n) -
correct answer. Portable X-Ray Machine
T/F: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by cervical spine
radiographic evaluations (CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE is
unavailable - correct answer. False, Cervical Spine Radiographic Evaluations has
largely been replaced by Computed Tomography.
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography Scanner? -
correct answer. Role 3
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a portable X-Ray Machine? - correct
answer. Role 2
Members of the trauma team should have ____ aprons and thyroid shields available
near the trauma bay for radiation safety. - correct answer. Lead
Distance is also protective from radiation exposure. If feasible based on the patient's
condition, any personnel without lead shielding should move a short distance away from
the X-Ray unit. The recommended minimal distance is - correct answer. 6 Feet
While the FAST scan has been validated only in hemodynamically unstable blunt
trauma patients, it has become a standard tool in the trauma bay and Emergency
Department (ED) in most trauma patients. FAST stands for - correct answer. Focused
Abdominal Sonographic Assessment for Trauma
FAST in combat trauma has a sensitivity of only 56% and specifically of - correct
answer. 98%
,T/F: The FAST exam remains one of the most sensitive tests for hollow viscus injury
and mesenteric injury. - correct answer. FALSE (Correct Answer is Diagnostic
Peritoneal Lavage or DPL)
T/F: At the Role 3, properly trained providers including radiologist, surgeons, and
emergency physicians can perform and interpret FAST scans in the emergency
department on a handheld portable device. - correct answer. TRUE
A FAST examination is performed with a portable hand-held machine most commonly
using a standard 3-7 MHz curved array ___ probe - correct answer. Ultra Sound
The standard FAST examination is focused on evaluating for the presence of ___ in
certain parts of the body. - correct answer. Intraperitoneal fluid
When you perform a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the right upper
quadrant. You are inspecting between which two organs? - correct answer. Liver and
Kidney
When preforming a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the left upper quadrant.
You are inspecting between which two organs? - correct answer. Spleen and Kidney
An 18g ____ IV is typically desired for Computed Tomography IV access. - correct
answer. Antecubital
T/F: The goal of Computed Tomography contrast injection is to provide concurrent solid
organ enhancement, arterial enhancement, and pulmonary arterial. - correct answer.
True
T/F: When preforming Computed Tomography scan on a Military Working Dog, utilize a
scanning protocol based on the adult settings to include the doses of and rates of
contrast administration. - correct answer. False (We should use pediatric
settings/doses/and contrast administration)
T/F: All patients evacuated through casualty evacuation should have images sent
electronically ahead of time as well as have CD created to send with the patients as a
backup. - correct answer. True
T/F: Magnetic Resonance Imaging is widely used in theater, as its utility in the acute
management of combat trauma was extensively established during Operation Enduring
Freedom. - correct answer. False (MRI in the acute management of combat trauma
has not been established)
All trauma patients arriving at a Role ___ will receive proper and expeditious radiologic
screening of injuries. - correct answer. Role 3
,T/F: Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma. - correct
answer. False (Service members exposed to hazardous noise is impact noise or noise
greater than 140dB are at high risk for acoustic trauma and subsequent hearing loss.
The symptoms of acoustic trauma are: - correct answer. Hearing Loss, Tinnitus
(ringing in the ear), Aural Fullness, Recruitment (Ear Pain with Loud Noise), Difficulty
localizing sounds, Difficulty hearing in a noisy background, Vertigo
Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is either
_____or____. - correct answer. Temporary or Permanent
The ear, specifically the_____, is the most sensitive organ to primary blast injury. -
correct answer. Tympanic Membrane
T/F: The smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater the
likelihood is of spontaneous closure. - correct answer. True
The majority of tympanic membrane perforations that close spontaneously do so within
the first ___ after injury. - correct answer. 8 weeks
Acute management of intratemporal facial nerve injury is to provide objective
documentation of facial movement using the ___ scale. - correct answer. House-
Brackmann Grading
T/F: For significant facial pareses/paralyses, early administration of steroids must
always be provided regardless of contraindications. - correct answer. False (Do not
administer if contraindicated)
Which inner ear abnormalities may cause vertigo? - correct answer. Traumatic Brain
Injury (TBI) following a blast injury, Otic capsule violating temporal bone fractures,
Secondary fractures of the inner ear, Vestibular nerves, Trauma induced endolymphatic
hydrops, Activation of subclinical superior semicircular canal dehiscence.
All service members that develop symptoms consistent with noise trauma (acute
tinnitus, muffled hearing, fullness in the ear) should - correct answer. be educated and
directed to self-report for evaluation and possible treatment as soon as practical.
What is the best course of action if you find debris in the external auditory canal or in
the middle ear? - correct answer. Treat the patient with a fluoroquinolone and steroid
containing topical antibiotic (e.g., 4 drops of ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone or ofloxacin in
the affected ear 3 times a day for 7 days.) Do not irrigate the ear as it may provoke pain
and vertigo
Hearing loss that persists ___ after acoustic trauma warrants a hearing test or
audiogram. - correct answer. 72 Hours
, T/F: Vestibular trauma to the inner ear may manifest in vertigo. - correct answer. True
All patients with subjective hearing loss and tinnitus follow blast exposure should -
correct answer. have the exposure documented and should be evaluated by hearing
testing as soon as possible.
Patients with TTS greater than ___ losses in three consecutive frequencies should be
considered candidates for high dose oral and/or transtympanic steroid injections when
not otherwise contraindicated. - correct answer. 25dB
What are indications for endotracheal intubation during your initial burn survey? -
correct answer. A comatose patient, symptomatic inhalation injury, deep facial burns,
and burns over 40% Total Body Surface Area (TBSA)
Burn casualties with injuries greater than ___Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) are at
high risk for hypothermia. - correct answer. 20%
T/F: When providing point of injury care to a burn patient, you must immediately debride
blisters and cover burns with loose, moist gauze wraps or wet clean sheet. - correct
answer. False. You must immediately interrupt the burning process and address any
life-threatening bleeding, airway compromise, or tension pneumothorax as directed by
Tactical Combat Casualty Care guidelines.
Calculate a burn patients initial burn size using the Rule of - correct answer. Nines
Which type of burn is not included in the estimation of Total Body Surface Area (TBSA)
used for fluid resuscitation? - correct answer. Superficial (1st Degree) Burns
Which classification of burns are moist and sensate, blister, and blanch? - correct
answer. Partial thickness burns (2nd Degree)
Which classification of burns appear red, do not blister, and blanch readily? - correct
answer. Superficial burns (1st Degree)
Which classification of burns appear leathery, dry, non-blanching, are insensate and
often contain thrombosed vessels? - correct answer. Full thickness burns (3rd
Degree)
What is the Rule of 10s burn resuscitation equation? - correct answer. 10mL/hr x
%TBSA. For patients weighing more than 80kg, add 100 mL/hr to IV fluid rate for each
10kg >80kg.
For children suffering burn injuries, ____xTBSAxBody weight in kg gives the volume for
the first 24 hrs of fluid resuscitation. - correct answer. 3
