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EFMB Written Test Study Guide (2024) Questions And Answers 100% Verified.

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EFMB Written Test Study Guide (2024)
Questions And Answers 100% Verified.

Section 1 - Radiology: Imaging Trauma Patients in a Deployed Setting - correct answer.
-

The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine Anterior-
Posterior (AP) chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n)
__________. - correct answer. portable x-ray machine

T/F: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by Cervical Spine
Radiographic Evaluation (CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE is
unavailable. - correct answer. FALSE. Cervical Spine Radiographic Evaluation
(CSRE) has been largely replaced by Computed Tomography (CT) and should only be
performed when a CT is unavailable.

What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography (CT) Scanner?
- correct answer. Role 3

What is the lowest level of care equipped with a portable x-ray machine? - correct
answer. Role 2

Members of the trauma team should have __________ aprons and thyroid shields
available near the trauma bay for radiation safety. - correct answer. lead

Distance is also protective from radiation exposure. If feasible based on the patient's
condition, any personnel without lead shielding should move a short distance away from
the x-ray unit. The recommended minimal distance is __________ feet. - correct
answer. Six (6)

While the FAST scan has been validated only in hemodynamically unstable blunt
trauma patients, it has become a standard tool in the trauma bay and Emergency
Department (ED) in most trauma patients. FAST stands for __________. - correct
answer. Focused Abdominal Sonographic Assessment for Trauma

,FAST in combat trauma has a sensitivity of only 56% and and specificity of
__________. - correct answer. 98%

T/F: The FAST exam remains the most sensitive test for hollow viscus injury and
mesenteric injury. - correct answer. FALSE. Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage (DPL)
remains the most sensitive test for hollow viscus injury and mesenteric injury.

T/F: At the Role 3, properly trained providers including radiologists, surgeons, and
emergency physicians, can perform and interpret FAST scans in the emergency
department on a hand held portable US device. - correct answer. TRUE

A FAST examination is performed with a portable hand-held machine most commonly
using a standard 3-7 MHz curved array __________ probe. - correct answer. Ultra
Sound (US)

The standard FAST examination is focused on evaluating for the presence of
__________ in certain areas of the body. - correct answer. Free Intraperitoneal Fluid

When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the right upper
quadrant. You are inspecting between which two (2) organs? - correct answer. Liver &
Kidney

When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the left upper quadrant.
You are inspecting between which two (2) organs? - correct answer. Spleen & Kidney

An 18g __________ IV is typically desired for Computed Tomography IV access. -
correct answer. antecubital

T/F: The goal of Computed Tomography (CT) contrast injection is to provide concurrent
solid organ enhancement, arterial enhancement, and pulmonary arterial. - correct
answer. TRUE

T/F: When performing Computed Tomography (CT) scan on a Military Working Dog,
utilize a scanning protocol based on the adult settings to include the doses of and rates
of contrast administration. - correct answer. FALSE. Utilize a scanning protocol based
on the pediatric settings to include the doses of and rates of contrast administration.

T/F: All patients evacuated through casualty evacuation should have images sent
electronically ahead of time as well as have a CD created to send with the patient as a
backup. - correct answer. TRUE

T/F: Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is widely used in theater, as its utility in the
acute management of combat trauma was extensively established during Operation
Enduring Freedom. - correct answer. FALSE. While Magnetic Resonance Imaging
(MRI) has been deployed to theater in the past, its utility in the acute management of
combat trauma has not been established.

,All trauma patients arriving at a Role __________ hospital will receive proper and
expeditious radiologic screening of injuries. - correct answer. 3

Section 2: Aural Blast Injury Acoustic Trauma & Hearing Loss - correct answer. -

T/F: Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma. - correct
answer. FALSE. Service Members exposed to hazardous noise is impact noise or
noise greater than 140 dB are at high risk for acoustic trauma and subsequent hearing
loss. Patients exposed to blasts are at risk for both aural and acoustic trauma.

The symptoms of acoustic trauma are: - correct answer. 1. Hearing Loss
2. Tinnitus (Ringing in the Ear)
3. Aural Fullness
4. Recruitment (Ear Pain with Loud Noise)
5. Difficulty Localizing Sounds
6. Difficulty Hearing in a Noisy Background
7. Vertigo

"H-TARDD-V"

Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is either
__________ or __________. - correct answer. temporary (temporary threshold shift,
TTS) or permanent (permanent threshold shift, PTS)

The ear, specifically the __________, is the most sensitive organ to primary blast injury
(PBI). - correct answer. tympanic membrane (TM)

T/F: the smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater the
likelihood is of spontaneous closure. - correct answer. TRUE

The majority of tympanic membrane perforations that close spontaneously do so within
the first __________ after injury. - correct answer. 8 weeks

Acute management of intratemporal facial nerve injury is to provide objective
documentation of facial movement using the __________ grading scale. - correct
answer. House-Brackmann

T/F: For significant facial pareses/paralyses, early administration of steroids must
always be provided regardless of contraindications. - correct answer. FALSE. Early
administration of steroids should be provided if not contraindicated, and referral for
management by an otolaryngologist is indicated.

Which inner ear abnormalities may cause vertigo? - correct answer. 1. Otic Capsule
Violating Temporal Bone Fractures
2. Secondary Infections of the Inner Ear or Vestibular Nerves

, 3. Trauma Induced Endolymphatic Hydrops
4. Activation of Subclinical Super Semicircular Canal Dehiscence

"OSTA"

All Service Members that develop symptoms consistent with noise trauma (acute
tinnitus, muffled hearing, fullness in the ear) should... - correct answer. ...be educated
and directed to self-report for evaluation and possible treatment as soon as practicable.

What is the best course of action if you find debris in the External Auditory Canal (EAC)
or in the middle ear (as seen through a TM perforation)? - correct answer. Treat the
patient with a fluoroquinolone and steroid containing topical antibiotic (e.g., four (4)
drops of ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone or ofloxacin in the affected ear three (3) times a
day for seven (7) days. Do not irrigate the ear as it may provoke pain and vertigo.

Hearing loss that persists __________ hours after acoustic trauma warrants a hearing
test or audiogram. - correct answer. 72 hours

T/F: Vestibular trauma to the inner ear may manifest in vertigo. - correct answer.
TRUE

All patients with subjective hearing loss and tinnitus following blast exposure should... -
correct answer. ...have the exposure documented, and should be evaluated by
hearing testing as soon as possible

Patients with temporary threshold shift (TTS) greater than __________ losses in three
(3) consecutive frequencies should be considered candidates for high dose oral and/or
transtympanic steroid injections when not otherwise contraindicated. - correct answer.
25 dB

Section 3: Burn Care - correct answer. -

What are indications for endotracheal intubation during your initial burn survey? -
correct answer. 1. A Comatose Patient
2. Symptomatic Inhalation Injury
3. Deep Facial Burns
4. Burns Over 40% Total Body Surface Area (TBSA)

"CSDB"

Burn casualties with injuries greater than __________ Total Body Surface Area (TBSA)
are at high risk of hypothermia. - correct answer. 20%

T/F: When providing point of injury care to a burn patient, you must immediately debride
blisters and cover burns with loose, moist gauze wraps or a wet clean sheet. - correct
answer. FALSE. In the field, Interrupt the Burning Process and address any life

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